Table of Contents
UPSC Prelims GS 1 Question and Answer
UPSC Prelims 2024 question papers and detailed solutions are given below. The UPSC typically releases an official answer key after the final result. The StudyIQ Team prepares detailed solutions with explanations for UPSC Prelims Questions. GS Paper 1 Question Pattern:
- Number of Questions: 100
- Total Marks: 200
- Type of Questions: Multiple Choice Questions (MCQs)
- Duration: 2 Hours
Negative Marking:
- There is negative marking for incorrect answers.
- For every wrong answer, 1/3rd of the marks for that question is deducted.
- Each question carries 2 marks, so for an incorrect answer, 0.66 marks will be deducted.
UPSC Prelims Questions with Detailed Solution 2024
Check here for UPSC Prelims Questions with Detailed Solution and Explanation 2024 for GS Paper 1.
| Question | Answer | Explanation |
| 1. The total fertility rate in an economy is defined as: (a) the number of children born per 1000 people in the population in a year. (b) the number of children born to a couple in their lifetime in a given population. (c) the birth rate minus death rate. (d) the average number of liveve births a woman would have by the end of her child-bearing age. | D | The average number of children a hypothetical cohort of women would have at the end of their reproductive period if they were subject during their whole lives to the fertility rates of a given period and if they were not subject to mortality. It is expressed as children per woman. |
| 2. Consider the following statements : 1. In India, Non-Banking Financial Companies can access the Liquidity Adjustment Facility window of the Reserve Bank of India. 2. In India, Foreign Institutional Investors can hold the Government Securities (G-Secs). 3. In India, Stock Exchanges can offer separate trading platforms for debts. Which of the statements given above is/are correct? (a) 1 and 2 only (b) 3 only (c) 1, 2 and 3 (d) 2 and 3 only | C | Statement 1 is correct.: LAF is a facility extended by RBI to the scheduled commercial banks (excluding RRBs) and Primary Dealers (PDs) to avail of liquidity in case of requirement or park excess funds with RBI in case of excess liquidity on an overnight basis against the collateral of G-Secs including SDLs. PD includes insitutions which registered as an NBFC under Section 45-IA of the RBI Act, 1934 for at least one year prior to the submission of application. https://www.rbi.org.in/scripts/FS_FAQs.aspx?Id=79&fn=2757#6 https://m.rbi.org.in/Scripts/BS_ViewMasDirections.aspx?id=10476
Statement 2 is correct.: FII can hold the G-Secs. However, it is limited by the RBI. The Reserve Bank of India (RBI) has put limits for FPIs’ (foreign portfolio investors) investment in government securities, state development loans and corporate bonds will be 6%, 2% and 15%, respectively, of outstanding stocks of securities for 2024-25. https://dea.gov.in/sites/default/files/review_FII_GS_Corp_bonds.pdf Statement 3 is correct. :A stock exchange is a marketplace where securities, such as shares and bonds are traded. It provides a platform for raising money, and monitors compliance by listed entities with listing requirements. https://www.sebi.gov.in/sebi_data/faqfiles/jan-2023/1674793029919.pdf |
| 3. In India, which of the following can trade in Corporate Bonds and Government Securities ? 1. Insurance Companies 2. Pension Funds 3. Retail Investors Select the correct answer using the code given below: (a) 1 and 2 only · (b) 2 and 3 only (c) 1 and 3 only (d) 1, 2 and 3 | D | All the three are correct The following regulated entities are permitted to undertake repo transactions in corporate debt securities:1. Any scheduled commercial bank excluding RRBs & LABs; 2. Any Primary Dealer authorised by the Reserve Bank of India; 3. Any non-banking financial company registered with the Reserve Bank of India (other than Government companies as defined in section 617 of the Companies Act, 1956); 4. All-India Financial Institutions namely Exim Bank, NABARD, NHB and SIDBI; 5. Other regulated entities, subject to the approval of the regulators concerned, viz., 6. Any mutual fund registered with the Securities and Exchange Board of India; 7. Any housing finance company registered with the National Housing Bank; and 8. Any insurance company registered with the Insurance Regulatory and Development Authority 9. Any other entity specifically permitted by the Reserve BankMajor players in the G-Secs market include commercial banks and PDs besides institutional investors like insurance companies. PDs play an important role as market makers in G-Secs market. A market maker provides firm two way quotes in the market i.e. both buy and sell executable quotes for the concerned securities. Other participants include co-operative banks, regional rural banks, mutual funds, provident and pension funds. Foreign Portfolio Investors (FPIs) are allowed to participate in the G-Secs market within the quantitative limits prescribed from time to time. Corporates also buy/ sell the G-Secs to manage their overall portfolio. |
| 4. Consider the following : 1. Exchange-Traded Funds (ETF) 2. Motor vehicles 3. Currency swap Which of the above is/are considered financial instruments? (a) 1 only (b) 2 and 3 only (c) 1, 2 and 3 (d) 1 and 3 only | D | Item 1 and 3 are correct. Financial instruments include currency, deposits, debt securities, loans and borrowings, equity, investment funds (such as mutual funds), insurance, pension and provident funds, monetary gold, other accounts (including trade debt) and other liabilities/ assets not elsewhere classified (Others n.e.c.). Item 2 is incorrect: Motor vehicle is a depreciating asset and is not considered as financial instruments. |
| 5. With reference to the sectors of the Indian economy, consider the following pairs:Economic activity Sector Storage of agricultural produce Secondary Dairy farm Primary Mineral exploration Tertiary Weaving cloth SecondaryHow many of the pairs given above are correctly matched? (a) Only one. (b) Only two (c) Only three (d) All four | C | |
| 6. Consider the following materials : 1. Agricultural residues 2. Corn grain 3. Wastewater treatment sludge 4. Wood mill waste Which of the above can be used as a feedstock for producing Sustainable Aviation Fuel ? (a) 1 a.nd 2 only (b) 3 and 4 only (c) 1, 2, 3 and 4 (d) 1, 3 and 4 only | C | All materials are used in Sustainable Aviation Fuel. SAF is a biofuel that has similar properties to conventional jet fuel but with an 80% lower carbon footprint. Some of the feedstocks to produce SAF are corn, oilseeds, sugarcane, agricultural residues, used cooking oil, biological waste and animal fat.Firefly Green Fuels, a company committed to decarbonizing aviation, has announced plans to construct a pioneering facility to convert sewage sludge into sustainable aviation fuel (SAF). |
| 7. With reference to physical capital in Indian economy, consider the following pairs: Items Category Farmer’s plough Working capital Computer Fixed capital Yarn used by the weaver Fixed capital Petrol Working capital How many of the above pairs are correctly matched? (a) Only one (b) Only two (c) Only three (d) All four | B | Farmers’ plough is an example of a fixed physical capital factor of production. A computer is regarded as a fixed asset for the business as it serves the business for the long term.Yarn is considered working capital because we spin yarn and weave cloth and for weaving clothes we need weaving machine.Petrol is working capital |
| 8. Which one of the following words/phrases is most appropriately used to denote “an interoperable network of 3D virtual worlds that can be accessed simultaneously by millions of users, who can exert property rights over virtual items” ? | C | The Metaverse is defined as a spatial computing platform that provides digital experiences as an alternative to or a replica of the real world, along with key civilizational aspects like social interactions, currency, trade, economy, and property ownership – founded on a bedrock of blockchain technology. |
| 9. With reference to the rule/rules imposed by the Reserve Bank of India while treating foreign banks, consider the following statements :1. There is no minimum capital requirement for wholly owned banking subsidiaries in India. 2. For wholly owned banking subsidiaries in India, at least 50% of the board members should be Indian nationals.Which of the statements given above is/are correct? (a) 1 only. (b) 2 only (c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2 | B | Statement 1is wrong. restrictions would be placed on further entry of new WOSs of foreign banks, when the capital and reserves of the foreign banks (i.e. WOSs and foreign bank branches) in India exceed 20% of the capital and reserves of the banking system. Statement 2 is correct. In order to ensure that the board of directors of the WOS of foreign bank set up in India acts in the best interest of the local institution, RBI may, in line with the best practices in other countries, mandate that (i) not less than 50 percent of the directors should be Indian nationals resident in India, (ii) not less than 50 percent of the directors should be non-executive directors, (iii) a minimum of one-third of the directors should be totally independent of the management of the subsidiary in India, its parent or associates and (iv) the directors shall conform to the ‘Fit and Proper’ criteria as laid down in our extant guidelines contained in RBI circular dated June 25, 2004, as amended from time to time. This would be in line with our roadmap released in February 2005. |
| 10. With reference to Corporate Social Responsibility (CSR) rules in India, consider the following statements: 1. CSR rules specify that expenditures that benefit the company directly or its employees will not be considered as CSR activities. 2. CSR rules do not specify minimum spending on CSR activities.Which of the statements given above is/are correct? (a) 1 only (b) 2 only (c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2 | A | Statement 1 is correct.The CSR projects or programs or activities that benefit only the employees of the company and their families shall not be considered as CSR activities in accordance with section 135 of the Act. The Companies Act, 2013 provides for CSR under section 135. Thus, it is mandatory for the companies covered under section 135 to comply with the CSR provisions in India. Statement 2 is wrong, Companies are required to spend a minimum of 2% of their net profit over the preceding three years as CSR. |
| 11. With reference to radioisotope thermoelectric generators (RTGs), consider the following statements: 1. RIGs are miniature fission reactors. 2. RTGs are used for powering the onboard systems of spacecrafts. 3. RIGs can use Plutonium-238, which is a by-product of weapons development. Which of the statements given above are correct? (a) 1 and 2 only (b) 2 and 3 only (c) 1 and 3 only (d) 1,2 and 3 | B | Statement 1 is incorrect: RTGs (Radioisotope Thermoelectric Generators) are not miniature fission reactors; they generate electricity using the heat released by the decay of radioactive materials, typically plutonium-238. Statement 2 is correct: RTGs are used for powering the onboard systems of spacecraft, especially those intended for deep space missions where solar power is insufficient. Statement 3 is correct: RTGs can use plutonium-238, which is a by-product of weapons development. |
| 12. Consider the following statements: Statement-I : Giant stars live much longer than dwarf stars. Statement-II : Compared to dwarf stars, giant stars have a greater rate of nuclear reactions. Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements? (a) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II explains Statement-I (b) Both Statement-I and Statement-ll are correct, but Statement-Il does not explain Statement-I (c) Statement-l is correct, but Statement-Ill is incorrect (d) Statement-I is incorrect, but Statement-II is correct | D | Statement 1 is incorrect: Giant stars have a greater rate of the nuclear reactions and also use up the hydrogen fuel in their core faster. Therefore, they have shorter lives than dwarf stars. Statement 2 is correct: Giant stars have hotter and denser cores than dwarf stars. Therefore, giant stars have a greater rate of the nuclear reactions that light up stars. Note: • Giant Stars: masses from eight times to as much as 100 times that of the mass of our sun. • Dwarf Stars: stars that are smaller than five times the mass of our sun |
| 13. Which one of the following is synthesised in human body that dilates blood vessels and increases blood flow? (a) Nitric oxide (b) Nitrous oxide- (c) Nitrogen dioxide (d) Nitrogen pentoxide | A | • Option A is correct: Nitric oxide (NO) is a molecule that is synthesized in the human body. It is produced by the endothelium (the inner lining of blood vessels). It acts as a vasodilator, meaning it dilates blood vessels, which increases blood flow. It also helps in stimulation of hormone release, signaling and regulation of neurotransmission. • Option B is incorrect: Nitrous oxide (N2O) is a gas used for anesthesia and pain relief, but it is not synthesized by the human body and does not have a role in blood vessel dilation. • Option C is incorrect: Nitrogen dioxide (NO2) is a toxic pollutant and not synthesized in the human body. • Option D is incorrect: Nitrogen pentoxide (N2O5) is a chemical compound and not synthesized in the human body. |
| 14. Consider the following activities: 1. Identification of narcotics on passengers at airports or in aircraft 2. Monitoring of precipitation 3. Tracking the migration of animals In how many of the above activities can the radars be used? (a) Only one (b) Only two (c) All three (d) None | B | • Item 1 is incorrect: Radars are not used for identifying narcotics. Other technologies such as X-ray scanners, and chemical detectors are employed for this purpose. • Item 2 is correct: Radars are extensively used in meteorology. Weather Radars, Doppler weather radars can detect the intensity, type, and movement of precipitation. • Item 3 is correct: Tracking the migration of animals: Radars can be used to track the migration of animals, especially birds and bats. Among the most commonly used are continuous wave, nexrad, harmonic radar, pulse, and Doppler |
| 15. Consider the following aircraft: 1. Rafael 2.MiG-29 3.Tejas MK-1 How many of the above are considered fifth generation fighter aircraft? (a) Only one. (b) Only two (c) All three (d) None | D | Fifth-generation fighter aircraft are characterized by advanced features such as stealth capabilities, super cruise, advanced avionics, and highly integrated computer systems for enhanced situational awareness and combat capabilities. E.g., India’s Advanced Medium Combat Aircraft (AMCA), Japanese Mitsubishi ATD-X etc. • Item 1 is incorrect: Rafael is a 4.5th generation fighter aircraft. • Item 2 is incorrect: The Mikoyan MiG-29, also known as the Fulcrum, is a 4th generation jet fighter aircraft. • Item 3 is incorrect: The Tejas Mk-1 is a 4.5 generation fighter aircraft, an upgraded version of the indigenous Tejas supersonic aircraft. |
| 16. In which of the following are hydrogels used? 1.Controlled drug delivery in patients 2.Mobile air-conditioning systems 3.Preparation of industrial lubricants Select the correct answer using the code given below: (a) 1 only (b) 1 and 2 only (c) 2 and 3 only (d) 1, 2 and 3 | D | • Item 1 is correct: Hydrogels are extensively used in controlled drug delivery systems. Their ability to hold a significant amount of water and release it gradually makes them ideal for delivering medications over a sustained period. • Item 2 is correct: Hydrogels can be used in mobile air-conditioning systems. They act as heat sinks and helps in regulating temperature and humidity. • Item 3 is correct: Hydrogels are used in the preparation of industrial lubricants for reducing friction in various industrial applications. |
| 17. Which one of the following is the exhaust pipe emission from Fuel Cell Electric Vehicles, powered by hydrogen? (a) Hydrogen peroxide (b) Hydronium (c) Oxygen (d) Water vapour | D | Option D is correct: Fuel cell electric vehicles, powered by hydrogen are more efficient than conventional internal combustion engine vehicles and produce no harmful tailpipe emissions. They only emit water vapor and warm air. https://afdc.energy.gov/vehicles/fuelcell#:~:text=Fuel%20cell%20electric% 20vehicles%20(FCEVs,the%20early%20stages%20of%20implementation. |
| 18. Recently, the term “pumped-storage hydropower” is actually and appropriately discussed in the context of which one of the following? (a) Irrigation of terraced crop fields (b) Lift irrigation of cereal crops (c) Long duration energy storage (d) Rainwater harvesting system | C | Option C is correct: Pumped storage hydropower is a form of clean energy storage that is ideal for electricity grids reliant on solar and wind power. The technology absorbs surplus energy at times of low demand and releases it when demand is high. https://www.hydropower.org/factsheets/pumped-storage |
| 19. “Membrane Bioreactors” are often discussed in the context of: (a) Assisted reproductive technologies (b) Drug delivery nanotechnologies (c) Vaccine production technologies (d) Wastewater treatment technologies | D | Option D is correct: Membrane bioreactors are combinations of membrane processes like microfiltration or ultrafiltration with a biological wastewater treatment process, the activated sludge process. These technologies are now widely used for municipal and industrial wastewater treatment. https://www.ncbi.nlm.nih.gov/pmc/articles/PMC4931528/ |
| 20. With reference to the Indian economy, “Collateral Borrowing and Lending Obligations” are the instruments of : (a) Bond market (b) Forex market (c) Money market (d) Stock market | C | Option C is correct: A collateralized borrowing and lending obligation (CBLO) is a money market instrument that represents an obligation between a borrower and a lender concerning the terms and conditions of a loan. It was launched by the Clearing Corporation of India Limited (CCIL) in 2003 to provide liquidity support to non-bank entities, who are restricted to access funds from the Call Money Market. |
| 21, Consider the following airports : 1. Donyi Polo Airport 2. Kushinagar International Airport 3. Vijayawada International Airport In the recent past, which of the above have been constructed as Greenfield projects ? (a) 1 and 2 only (b) 2 and 3 only· (c) 1 and 3 only (d) 1, 2 and 3 · | A | Item 1 and 2 are correct: Under the GFA policy, Government of India has accorded ‘In-Principle’ approval for setting up of 21 Greenfield Airports namely, Mopa in Goa, Navi Mumbai, Shirdi and Sindhudurg in Maharashtra, Kalaburagi, Vijayapura, Hassan and Shivamogga in Karnataka, Dabra (Gwalior) in Madhya Pradesh, Kushinagar and Noida (Jewar) in Uttar Pradesh, Dholera and Hirasar in Gujarat, Karaikal in Puducherry, Dagadarthi, Bhogapuram and Orvakal (Kurnool) in Andhra Pradesh, Durgapur in West Bengal, Pakyong in Sikkim, Kannur in Kerala and Itanagar in Arunachal Pradesh across the country. Item 3 is incorrect: Upgradation of airports as international airport is undertaken by Airports Authority of India (AAI) and concerned airport operators from time to time depending upon commercial viability, traffic demand, availability of land etc. Since 2014, 4 airports namely Tirupati, Vijayawada, Kushinagar and Mopa Airports have been declared as International Airports. With this, the number of international airports have increased to 30. https://pib.gov.in/PressReleaseIframePage.aspx?PRID=1943211#:~:text=Government%20of%20India%20has%20accorded,(Jewar)%20in%20Uttar%20Pradesh%2C |
| 22. With reference to “water vapour”, which of the following statements is/are correct ? 1. It is a gas, the amount of which decreases with altitude-. 2. Its percentage is maximum at the poles. Select the answer using the code given below : (a) 1 only (b) 2 only, (c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2 | A | https://ncert.nic.in/textbook/pdf/kegy210.pdf
Statement 1 is Correct- Water Vapour are gaseous state of water and decreases with altitude. Statement 2 Incorrect : Water vapour is maximum at equator and decreases toward poles. Hence only 1 is correct |
| 23. Consider the following description: 1. Annual and daily range of temperatures is low. 2. Precipitation occurs throughout the year. 3. Precipitation varies between 50 cm – 250 cm. What is this type of climate? (a) Equatorial climate (b) China type climate (c) Humid subtropical climate (d) Marine West coast climate. | D | https://www.britannica.com/science/marine-west-coast-climate
Confusing with Equatorial climate, difference with marine west climate is precipitation range. Annual and daily temp. range is also low and precipitation is all year around in Marine West Coast climate similar to equatorial Marine West Climate Precipitation range is : 50-250cm Equatorial: 150-250,300 cm Hence Marine West Coast Climate |
| 24. With reference to “Coriolis force”, which of the following statements is/are correct ? 1. It increases with increase in wind velocity. 2. It is maximum at the poles and is absent at the equator. Select the answer using the code given below : (a) 1 only (b) 2 only (c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2 | C | https://ncert.nic.in/ncerts/l/kegy210.pdf NcertStatement 1& 2 are Correct:: Coriolis Force deflects the wind to the right direction in the northern hemisphere andto the left in the southern hemisphere. The deflection is more when the wind velocity is high. The Coriolis force is directly proportional to the angle of latitude. It is maximum at the poles and is absent at the equator.Hence, answer is C. |
| 25. On June 21 every year, whi’ch of the following latitude(s) experience(s) a sunlight of more than 12 hours ? 1. Equator 2.. Tropic of Cancer · 3. Tropic of Capricorn 4. Arctic Circle Select the correct answer using the code given below: (a) 1 only (b) 2 only · (c) 3 and 4 (d) 2 and 4 | D | https://www.lpi.usra.edu/education/skytellers/seasons/
https://www.timeanddate.com/calendar/june-solstice.html https://www.aljazeera.com/news/2023/6/21/what-is-the-summer-solstice-and-why-is-june-21-the-longest-day Since the Northern Hemisphere is tilted toward the Sun in June, it receives more sunlight during the course of a day. The North Pole’s tilt toward the Sun is greatest at the solstice, so this event marks the longest day of the year north of the equator. This effect is greatest in locations that are farther away from the equator. In tropical areas, the longest day is just a little longer than 12 hours; in the temperate zone, it is significantly longer; and places within the Arctic Circle experience Midnight Sun or polar day, when the Sun does not set at night. While at equator sunlight is roughly around 12 hours, so only 2 option can be right as per question . the best suited is 2 and 4. Hence option D. |
| 26. One of the following regions has the world’s largest tropical peatland, which holds about three years worth of global carbon emissions from fossil fuels; and the possible destruction of which can exert detrimental effect on the global climate. Which one of the following denotes that region ? (a) Amazon Basin (b) Congo Basin (c) Kikori Basin (d) Rio de la Plata Basin | B | https://www.hindustantimes.com/environment/worlds-largest-tropical-peatlands-bigger-than-size-of-england-survey-101659516430285.html
Peatlands, essentially wetland ecosystems in which waterlogging prevents plants from fully decomposing, are very crucial in slowing climate change because of their ability to store carbon. The Congo Basin’s peatlands, an essential bulwark in the fight against climate change because they contain the largest stock of carbon held in tropical peat in the world, are 15% bigger than previously thought, according to research published in Nature Geoscience. The Congo Basin peatlands alone contain about 29 billion tons of carbon, equivalent to about three years of worldwide carbon-dioxide emissions, |
| 27. With reference to perflpolyfluoroalkyl substances (PF AS) that are used in making many consumer products, consider the following statements : 1. PF AS are found to be widespread in drinking water, food and food packaging materials. 2. PF AS are not easily degraded in the environment. 3. Persistent exposure to PF AS can lead to bioaccumulation in animal bodies. Which of the statements gfven above are correct? (a) 1 and 2 only (b) 2 and 3 only (c) 1 and 3 only (d) 1, 2 and 3 | D | Statement 1 is correct: PFAS have been used in a wide range of products due to their water- and grease-resistant properties such as Food packaging (e.g., microwave popcorn bags, fast-food wrappers) Statement 2 is correct: PFAS don’t easily degrade in the environment and are very mobile in water. Statement 3 is correct: They are man-made chemicals used to make nonstick cookware, water-repellent clothing, stain-resistant fabrics, cosmetics, firefighting forms, and many other products that resist grease, water, and oil. these pollutants have accumulated in the environment, entering the air, soil, groundwater and lakes and rivers as a result of industrial processes and from leaching through landfills. https://www.wionews.com/science/study-finds-alarming-levels-of-forever-chemicals-in-norwegian-arctic-ice-may-affect-wildlife-561030 |
| 28. Consider the following : 1. Carabid beetles 2. Centipedes 3. Flies 4. Termites 5. Wasps Parasitoid species are found in how many of the above kind of organisms ? (a) Only two· (b) Only three (c) Only four (d) All five | B | Carabid beetles: While carabid beetles are primarily predators, there are some beetles that exhibit parasitoid behavior, but it’s not typical for carabids. Centipedes: Centipedes are predators, not parasitoids. Flies: Many flies, especially in the order Hymenoptera, include parasitoid species (e.g., tachinid flies). Termites: Termites are social insects that are generally not known to be hosts for parasitoid species. Wasps: Many wasps are parasitoids, particularly those in the families Ichneumonidae and Braconidae.
Source: https://entomology.ca.uky.edu/018 |
| 29. Consider the following plants : 1. Groundnut 2. Horse-gram 3. Soybean How many of the above belong to the pea family? (a) Only one · (b) Onlytwo ( c) All three (d) None | C | https://www.britannica.com/topic/list-of-plants-in-the-family-Fabaceae-2021803
Commonly known as the pea family, Fabaceae features about 670 genera and nearly 20,000 species of trees, shrubs, vines, and herbs. Distributed worldwide, members of the family are generally characterized by compound leaves and the production of fruits known as legumes. The following is a list of some of the major genera and species in Fabaceae, arranged alphabetically by common name. Groundnut almendro (Dipteryx oleifera) Soybean acacia (genus Acacia) , alfalfa (Medicago sativa) bean (genus Phaseolus), Horse-gram |
| 30. Consider the following statements : Statement-I : The Indian Flying Fox is placed under the “vermin” category in the Wild Life (Protection) Act, 1972. Statement-II : The Flying Fox feeds on the blood of other animals. Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements ? (a) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II explains Statement-I ‘ (b) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct, but Statement-II does not explain Statement-I (c) Statement-I is correct, but Statement-II is incorrect (d) Statement-I is incorrect, but Statement-II is correct | C | 1.The flying fox, also known as fruit bats or Pteropus giganteus, is listed as a ‘vermin’ in the Indian Wildlife (Protection) Act, 1972 under schedule V , due to its destructive tendencies towards fruit farms. 2. Flying-foxes eat flowers and fruit, and sometimes leaves, from over 100 species of native trees and vines. https://timesofindia.indiatimes.com/city/gurgaon/they-may-be-called-vermins-but-fruit-bats-are-vital-for-ecosystem/articleshow/81263203.cms |
| 31. Consider the following statements: Statement-1: The atmosphere is heated more by incoming solar radiation than by terrestrial radiation.Statement-II: Carbon dioxide and other greenhouse gases in the atmosphere are good absorbers of long wave radiation. Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements? (a) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II explains Statement-I (b) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct, but Statement-II does not explain Statement-I (c) Statement-I is correct, but Statement-II is incorrect (d) Statement-I is incorrect, but Statement-II is correct. | D | Statement 1 is incorrect: Atmosphere absorbs only 14 units from incoming solar radiation and 34 units by terrestrial radiation Statement 2 is correct. |
| 32. Consider the following statements : Statement-I: Thickness of the troposphere at the equator is much greater as compared to poles. Statement-II: At the equator, heat is transported to great heights by strong convectional currents. Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements ? (a) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II explains Statement-I (b) Both Statement-I and Statement-ll are correct, but Statement-II does not explain Statement-I (c) Statement-I is correct, but Statement-II is incorrect (d) Statement-I is incorrect·, but Statement-II is correct | A | Its average height is 13 km and extends roughly to a height of 8 km near the poles and about 18 km at the equator. Thickness of the troposphere is greatest at the equator because heat is transported to great heights by strong convectional currents. Source: NCERT |
| 33. Consider the following: 1. Pyroclastic debris 2. Ash and dust 3. Nitrogen compounds 4. Sulphur compounds How many of the above are products of volcanic eruptions ? (a) Only one (b) Only two (c) Only three. (d) All four | D | The material that reaches the ground includes lava flows, pyroclastic debris, volcanic bombs, ash and dust and gases such as nitrogen compounds, sulphur compounds and minor amounts of chlorene, hydrogen and argon. Source: NCERT |
| 34. Which of the following is/are correct inference/inferences from isothermal maps in the month of January? 1. The isotherms deviate to the north over the ocean and to the south over the continent. 2. The presence of cold ocean currents, Gulf Stream and North Atlantic Drift make the North Atlantic Ocean colder and the isotherms bend towards the north. Select the answer using the code given below : (a) 1 only (b) 2 only (c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2 | A | In January the isotherms deviate to the north over the ocean and to the south over the continent. This can be seen on the North Atlantic Ocean. The presence of warm ocean currents, Gulf Stream and North Atlantic drift, make the Northern Atlantic Ocean warmer and the isotherms bend towards the north. Source: NCERT |
| 35. Which of the following countries are well known as the two largest cocoa producers in the world? (a) Algeria and Morocco (b) Botswana and Namibia (c) Cote d’Ivoire and Ghana (d) Madagascar and Mozambique | C | Côte d’Ivoire and Ghana are by far the two largest cocoa growing countries, accounting for nearly 60 % of global cocoa production, followed by Ecuador with 9 %. In Asia, Indonesia is the largest producer country. Source: https://www.kakaoplattform.ch/about-cocoa/cocoa-facts-and- figures#:~:text=Most%20cocoa%20is%20produced%20in%20West%20Africa&text =Côte%20d’Ivoire%20and%20Ghana%20are%20by%20far %20the%20two,is%20the%20largest%20producer%20country. |
| 36. With reference to the Himalayan rivers join.ing the Ganga downstream of Prayagraj from West to East, which one of the following sequences is correct ? (a) Ghaghara – Gomati – Gandak – Kosi (b) Gomati – Ghaghara – Gandak – Kosi (c) Ghaghara – Gomati – Kosi – Gandak (d) Gomati – Ghaghara – Kosi – Gandak | B | https://indiawris.gov.in/wiki/doku.php?id=ganga#:~:text=The%20principal%20tributaries%20joining%20the%20river%20from%20right%20are%20the%20Yamuna%20and%20the%20Son.%20The%20Ramganga%2C%20the%20Ghaghra%2C%20the%20Gandak%2C%20the%20Kosi%20and%20the%20Mahananda%20join%20the%20river%20from%20left. |
| 37. Consider the following statements : Statement-I : Rainfall is one of the reasons for weathering of rocks. Statement-II: Rain water contains carbon dioxide in solution. Statement-III: Rain water contains atmospheric oxygen. Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements ? (a) Both Statement-II and Statement-III are correct and both of them explain Statement-I (b) Both Statement-II and Statement-III are correct, but only one of them explains Statement-I (c) Only one of the Statements II and III is correct and that explains Statement-I (d) Neither Statement-II nor Statement-III is correct | A | https://earthobservatory.nasa.gov/features/CarbonCycle#:~:text=carbon%20dioxide%20gas%20reacts%20with%20water%20molecules%20to%20release%20hydrogen%2C%20making%20the%20ocean%20more%20acidic.%20The%20hydrogen%20reacts%20with%20carbonate%20from%20rock%20weathering%20to%20produce%20bicarbonate%20ions. |
| 38. Consider the following countries : 1. Finland 2. Germany 3. Norway 4. Russia How many of the above countries have a border with the North Sea ? (a) Only one (b) Only two (c) Only three · (d) All four | B | The North Sea basin comprises EU Member States (Belgium, Denmark, Germany, the Netherlands) as well as non-EU countries (Norway and the United Kingdom). Source: https://maritime-spatial-planning.ec.europa.eu/sea-basins/north-sea#:~:text=The%20North%20Sea%20basin%20comprises%20EU%20Member%20States%20(Belgium%2C%20Denmark%2C%20Germany%2C%20the%20Netherlands)%20as%20well%20as%20non%2DEU%20countries%20(Norway%20and%20the%20United%20Kingdom).%20In%20this%20sea%20basin%20are%20located%203%20of%20the%20world’s%20largest%20ports%20%2D%20Rotterdam%20(the%20Netherlands)%2C%20Antwerp%20(Belgium)%20and%20Hamburg%20(Germany). |
| 39. Consider the following information : Waterfall – Region – River 1. Dhuandhar – Malwa – Narmada 2. Hundru – Chota Nagpur – Subarnarekha 3. Gersoppa – Western Ghat – Netravati In how many of the above rows is the given information correctly matched ? (a) Only one (b) Only two ( c) All three (d) None | A | Pair 1 incorrectly matched: Dhuadhar Falls is not only in Jabalpur but it is an important place of tourism in whole of Madhya Pradesh. The shade of this fall falling from a height of 10 meters is unique. It originates from Narmada river. It is located in the Central Eastern side of MP as different from Malwa plateau which lies in the Central Western side of MP. .https://jabalpur.nic.in/en/tourist-place/dhuadhar-water-fall/#:~:text=Dhuadhar%20Falls%20is%20not%20only%20in%20Jabalpur%20but%20it%20is%20an%20important%20place%20of%20tourism%20in%20whole%20of%20Madhya%20Pradesh.%20The%20shade%20of%20this%20fall%20falling%20from%20a%20height%20of%2010%20meters%20is%20unique.%20It%20originates%20from%20Narmada%20river Pair 2 is correctly matched. : The Hundru Falls Ranchi is created on the course of the Subarnarekha River, where is falls from a height of 320 feet creating the highest water falls of the state. https://ranchi.nic.in/tourist-place/hundru-waterfall/#:~:text=The%C2%A0Hundru%20Falls%20Ranchi%C2%A0is%20created%20on%20the%20course%20of%20the%20Subarnarekha%20River%2C%20where%20is%20falls%20from%20a%20height%20of%20320%20feet%20creating%20the%20highest%20water%20falls%20of%20the%20state. Pair 3 is incorrectly matched: Jog Falls, also known as Gerosoppa Falls, is related to the Sharavathi River. It is located in the state of Karnataka, India. https://karnatakatourism.org/tour-item/jog-falls/#:~:text=Jog%20Falls%2C%20a%20major%20attraction%20in%20Karnataka%2C%20is%20located%20in%20the%20Shimoga%20district%20of%20Karnataka.%20Also%20known%20by%20alternative%20names%20of%20Gerusoppe%20Falls%2C%20Gersoppa%20Falls%2C%20and%20Jogada%20Gundi%2C%20it%20is%20one%20of%20the%20highest%20waterfalls%20in%20India Only 2nd Statement is correct, Dhundhar is a part of Amarkantak range and Gersopa waterfall is on Sharavati river |
| 40. Consider the following information : Region – Name Of Mountain – Type of Mountain 1. Central Asia – Vosges – Fold mountain 2. Europe – Alps Mountain – Block 3. North America – Appalachians – Fold mountain 4. South America – Andes – Fold mountain In how many of the above rows is the given information correctly matched ? (a) Only one (b) Only two (c) Only three (d) All four | B | https://ncert.nic.in/ncerts/l/fess206.pdf Block Mountains are created when large areas are broken and displaced vertically. The uplifted blocks are termed as horsts and the lowered blocks are called graben. The Rhine valley and the Vosges mountain in Europe are examples of such mountain systems The Himalayan Mountains and the Alps are young fold mountains with rugged relief and high conical peaks. The Appalachians in North America and the Ural mountains in Russia have rounded features and low elevation. They are very old, folded mountains. Mountains may be arranged in a line known as range. Many mountain systems consist of a series of parallel ranges extending over hundreds of kilometres. The Himalayas, the Alps and the Andes are mountain ranges of Asia, Europe and South America, respectively |
| 41. The organisms “Cicada, Froghopper and Pond skater” are : (a) Birds (b) Fish (c) Insects; (d) Reptiles | C | The cicadas are a superfamily, the Cicadoidea, of insects in the order Hemiptera. The froghoppers, or the superfamily Cercopoidea, are a group of hemipteran insects in the suborder Auchenorrhyncha The Gerridae are a family of insects in the order Hemiptera, commonly known as water striders, water skeeters, water scooters, water bugs, pond skaters, water skippers, water gliders, water skimmers or puddle flies. |
| 42. Consider the following statements : Statement-1: Many chewing gums found in the market are considered a source of environmental pollution. Statement-II : Many chewing gums contain plastic as gum base. Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements ? (a) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II explains Statement-I (b) Both Statement-I and Statement-ll are correct, but Statement-Il does not explain Statement-I (c) Statement-l is correct, but Statement-Ill is incorrect (d) Statement-I is incorrect, but Statement-II is correct | A | (a) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II explains Statement-I Statement-I is correct because chewing gum has a significant environmental impact due to its non-biodegradable nature, contributing to litter and waste. Statement-II is also correct as many chewing gums contain plastic in their gum base, which is a source of environmental pollution due to its non-biodegradable properties. |
| 43. Consider the following pairs : Country vs Animal found in natural habitat 1. Brazil – Indri 2. Indonesia – Elk 3. Madagascar – Bonobo How many of the pairs given above are correctly matched ? (a) Only one (b) Onlytwo (c) All three (d) None | D | d) None The pairs listed in the image are all incorrectly matched. The correct associations are: Indri: Found in Madagascar, not Brazil. Elk: Native to North America and Eastern Asia, not Indonesia. Bonobo: Found in the Democratic Republic of the Congo, not Madagascar. |
| 44. Consider the following statements regarding World Toilet Organization 1. It is one of the agencies of the United Nations. 2. World Toilet Summit, World Toilet Day and World Toilet College are the initiatives of this organization, to inspire action to tackle the global sanitation crlsis. 3 . The main focus of its function is to grant funds to the least developed countries and developing countries to achieve the end of open defecation. Which of the statements given above is/are correct? (a) 2 only (b) 3 only (c) 1 and 2 (d) 2and3 | A | (a) 2 only The World Toilet Organization (WTO) is not one of the agencies of the United Nations, so statement 1 is incorrect. The initiatives such as World Toilet Summit, World Toilet Day, and World Toilet College are indeed part of the WTO’s efforts to tackle the global sanitation crisis, making statement 2 correct. Statement 3 is incorrect. While the WTO focuses on improving sanitation and empowers individuals through education, training and building local marketplace opportunities to advocate for clean and safe sanitation facilities in their communities., it does not primarily function as a grant-giving entity to countries. |
| 45. Consider the following statements: 1. Lions do not have a particular breeding season. 2. Unlike most other big cats, cheetahs do not roar. 3. Unlike male lions, male leopards do not proclaim their territory by scent marking. Which of the statements given above are correct? (a) 1 and 2 only (b) 2 and 3 only. (c)1 and 3 only (d)1, 2 and 3 | A | The correct answer is: (a) 1 and 2 only Lions do not have a particular breeding season, which means they can mate at any time of the year. Cheetahs, unlike most other big cats, do not roar. They make a variety of other vocalizations such as chirps, purrs, and growls. The statement about leopards is incorrect. Male leopards do proclaim their territory by scent marking, similar to male lions. source: https://cheetah.org/canada/2017/09/30/whats-the-difference-between-cheetahs-and-other-big-cats/ |
| 46. Which one of the following is the correct description of “100 Million Farmers”? (a) It is a platform for accelerating the transition towards food and water systems that are net-zero (carbon), nature-positive and that aims to increase farmer resilience. (b) It is an international alliance and a network of individuals and farming organisations interested in supporting and strengthening the development of the organic animal husbandry. (c)It is a digital platform fully integrated with service providers and built on blockchain that lets buyers, sellers and third parties trade fertilizers quickly and securely. (d) It is a platform with the mission of encouraging the farmers to form Farmer Product Organisations or Agribusiness Consortiums, thus facilitating the access to global open markets to sell their products. | A | 100 Million Farmers has bold objectives for accelerating the transition towards food and water systems that are net-zero, nature-positive, and that increase farmer resilience. All three objectives are critical to achieve a successful transition. Source: https://initiatives.weforum.org/100-million-farmers/home |
| 47. Consider the following : 1. Battery storage 2. Biomass generators 3. Fuel cells 4 Rooftop solar photovoltaic units How many of the above are considered “Distributed Energy sources”? (a) Only one (b) Only two (c) Only three · (d) All four | D | Distributed energy resources (DERs) refer to small-scale units of local generation connected to the grid at distribution level. They typically include renewable energy sources and other energy technologies that generate or store electricity near the point of use. Let’s examine each of the listed technologies: Battery storage: This is a distributed energy resource as it stores energy locally and can provide electricity when needed. Biomass generators: These are distributed energy sources as they can generate electricity from organic materials locally. Fuel cells: These generate electricity through a chemical reaction and are considered distributed energy resources because they can be deployed close to the point of consumption. Rooftop solar photovoltaic units: These are quintessential distributed energy resources, generating electricity from solar energy directly at the location where it is consumed. Given that all four listed technologies are considered distributed energy resources, the correct answer is: (d) All four |
| 48. Which one of the following shows a unique relationship with an insect that has coevolved with it and that is the only insect that can pollinate this tree ? a)Fig b)Mahua c)Sandalwood d)Silk cotton | A | Fig trees and fig wasps have a unique mutualistic relationship where the fig is the only plant that the wasp can pollinate, and in turn, the wasp is the only insect that can pollinate the fig. This is a classic example of coevolution between a plant and an insect. |
| 49. Consider the following : 1.. Butterflies 2.. Fish 3. Frogs How many of the above have poisonous species among them ? (a) Only one (b) Only two (c) All three (d) None | C | Butterflies: Some species of butterflies are poisonous, such as the Monarch butterfly, which accumulates toxins from the milkweed plant during its larval stage. Fish: There are poisonous fish species like the pufferfish, which contains tetrodotoxin, a potent neurotoxin. Frogs: Certain frog species, like the poison dart frog, are known for their toxic skin secretions. Hence, all of them have poisonous species. |
| 50. Consider the following : 1.. Cashew 2.. Papaya 3. Red sanders How many of the above trees are actually native to India ? (a) Only one (b) Only two · (c) All three. (d) None | A | Cashew (Anacardium occidentale) is native to northeastern Brazil and was brought to India by the Portuguese in the 16th century. Papaya (Carica papaya) originates from southern Mexico and Central America and was introduced to the Old World in the 16th century. Red sanders (Pterocarpus santalinus) is indeed native to the southern Eastern Ghats mountain range of South India. |
| 51. Consider the following statements : Statement-I : There is instability and worsening security situation in the Sahel region. Statement-II: There have been military takeovers/coups d’etat in several countries of the Sahel region in the recent past. Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements ? (a) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II explains Statement-I (b) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct, but Statement-II does not explain Statement-I (c) Statement-I is correct, but Statement-II is incorrect (d) Statement-I is incorrect, but Statement-II is correct | A | Statement I is correct : the Sahel suffers from a long history of political instability, armed rebellions (especially in Mali and Niger), and bad governance. Since gaining independence in the 1960s, countries in the region have faced challenges of state- and nation-building Statement II is correct: Over the last three years, the African Sahel region has witnessed a wave of coups d’état in seven countries that extend from Guinea on the Atlantic Ocean to Sudan on the Red Sea. Five military coups succeeded in five countries, in Mali, Burkina Faso, Guinea, Niger, and Gabon, while three other nations—Tunisia, Chad, and Sudan—had constitutional coups. During approximately the same period, coup attempts were thwarted in Gambia, the Central African Republic, Sierra Leone, and the island nation of São Tomé and Príncipe. |
| 52. Consider the following statements : Statement-I: India does not import apples from the United States of America. Statement-II : In India, the law prohibits the import of Genetically Modified food without the approval of the competent authority. Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements ? (a) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II explains Statement-I (b) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct, but Statement-II does not explain Statement-I (c) Statement-I is correct, but Statement-II is incorrect (d) Statement-I is incorrect, but Statement-II is correct· | D | Statement 1 is incorrect : US lawmakers and apple growers are celebrating the export of apples to India this year, which is 16 times more than last year after New Delhi decided to drop the 20 per cent retaliatory tariff put in 2019 on American products, including this fruit. Statement II is correct – In India, the Food Safety and Standards Act, 2006, prohibits import, manufacture, use or sale of GM food without FSSAI’s approval. |
| 53. With reference to the Speaker of the Lok Sabha, consider the following statements : While any resolution for the removal of the Speaker of the Lok Sabha is under consideration 1.. He/She shall not preside. 2. He/She shall not have the right to speak. 3. Se/She shall not be entitled to vote on the resolution in the first instance. Which of the statements given above is/are correct? (a) 1 only (b) 1 and 2 only . (c) 2 and 3 only (d) 1, 2 and 3 | A | When a resolution for the removal of the Speaker in under consideration of the House, he cannot preside at the sittings of the House, though he may be present. He can speak and take part in proceedings of the House at such a time and vote in the first instance, though not in the case of equality of votes. |
| 54. With reference to the Indian Parliament, consider the following statements: 1. A bill pending in the Lok Sabha lapses on its dissolution. 2. A bill passed by the Lok Sabha and pending in the Rajya Sabha lapses on the dissolution of the Lok Sabha. 3.A bill in regard to which the President of India notified his/her intention to summon the Houses to a joint sitting lapses on the dissolution of the Lok Sabha. Which of the statements given above is/are correct? (a) 1 only (b) 1 and 2 (c) 2 and 3 (d) 3 only | B | statement 1 is correct : A bill pending in the Lok Sabha Lapses statement 2 is correct : A bill passed by the Lok Sabha but pending in the Rajya Sabha Lapses statement 3 is incorrect : A bill not passed by the two Houses due to disagreement and if the president has notified the holding of a joint sitting before the dissolution of Lok Sabha Does not Lapse |
| 55. With reference to the Parliament of India, consider the following statements : 1. Prorogation of a House by the President of India does not require the advice of the Council of Ministers. · 2. Prorogation of a House is generally done after the House is adjourned sine die but there is no bar to the President of India prorogating the House which is in session. · 3. Dissolution of the Lok Sabha is done by the President of India who, save in exceptional circumstances, does so on the advice of the Coundl of Ministers. Which of the statements given above is/are correct? (a) 1 only (b) 1 and 2 (c) 2 and 3 (d) 3 only | C | Under Article 85(2) of the Constitution, the President may from time to time prorogue Houses or either House of Parliament. Termination of a session of the House by an order by the President under the above constitutional provision is called ‘prorogation’. Prorogation terminates both the sitting and session of the House. Usually, within a few days after the House is adjourned sine die by the presiding officer, the President issues a notification for the prorogation of the session. However, the President can also prorogue the House while in session. Usually prorogation follows the adjournment of the House sine die. After obtaining the approval of the Cabinet Committee on Parliamentary Affairs (which can be considered as a part of Council of Ministers) to prorogue the House, the Ministry of Parliamentary Affairs conveys Government’s decision to the Secretary-General. On the basis of this communication, a note signed by the Secretary-General is sent to the Secretary to the President together with a Prorogation Order for approval and signature of the President. |
| 56. Consider the following statements: Statement-I: The European Parliament approved The Net-Zero Industry Act recently. Statement-II: The European Union intends to achieve carbon neutrality by 2040 and therefore aims to develop all of its own clean technology by that time. Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements? a) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are Statement-II explains and correct Statement-I (b) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct, but Statement-II does not explain Statement-I (c) Statement-I is correct, but Statement-II is incorrect (d) Statement-I is incorrect, but Statement-II is correct | C | Statement 1 is correct: In Feb 2024, The European Parliament approved The Net-Zero Industry Act. It aims to scale up the manufacturing of clean technologies in the EU Statement 2 is incorrect: The EU aims to be climate-neutral by 2050 – an economy with net-zero greenhouse gas emissions. This objective is at the heart of the European Green Deal , and is a legally binding. https://commission.europa.eu/strategy-and-policy/priorities-2019-2024/european-green-deal/green-deal-industrial-plan/net-zero-industry-act_en#:~:text=The%20Net%2DZero%20Industry%20Act%20explained&text=This%20Act%20will%20attract%20investments,annual%20deployment%20needs%20by%202030. |
| 57. Consider the following statements: Statement-1: Recently, Venezuela has achieved a rapid recovery from its economic crisis and succeeded in preventing its people from fleeing/emigrating to other countries. Statement-II: Venezuela has the world’s largest oil reserves. Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements? (a) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are Statement-II explains and correct Statement-I (b) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct, but Statement-II does not explain Statement-I (c) Statement-I is correct, but Statement-II is incorrect. (d) Statement-I is incorrect, but Statement-II is correct | D | Statement 1 is incorrect: Venezuela continues to face significant economic challenges, including hyperinflation, political instability, and widespread poverty Statement 2 is correct: Venezuela possesses the greatest oil reserves in the world, estimated to be more than 300 billion barrels. https://worldpopulationreview.com/country-rankings/oil-reserves-by-country |
| 58. With reference to the Digital India Land Records Modernization Programme, consider the following statements: 1. To implement the scheme, the Central Government provides 100% funding. 2. Under the Scheme, Cadastral Maps are digitized. 3. An initiative has been undertaken to transliterate the Records of Rights from local language to any of the languages recognized by the Constitution of India. Which of the statements given above are correct? (a) 1 and 2 only (b) 2 and 3 only (c) 1 and 3 only (d) 1, 2 and 3 | D | Statement 1 is correct: Digital India Land Records Modernization Programme (erstwhile National Land Record Modernization Programme-) was revamped and converted as a Central Sector Scheme with effect from 1st April, 2016 with 100% funding by the Centre. Statement 2 is correct: Under the Scheme, Cadastral Maps are digitized. Statement 3 is correct: The Government with the technical support of Centre for Development of Advanced Computing (C-DAC) Pune, has undertaken an initiative to transliterate the Records of Rights available in local language to any of the 22 Schedule VIII languages of the Constitution. https://pib.gov.in/PressReleasePage.aspx?PRID=1989671 |
| 59. With reference to “Pradhan Mantri Surakshit Matritva Abhiyan’, consider the following statements: 1. This scheme guarantees a minimum package of antenatal care services to women in their second and third trimesters of pregnancy and six months post-delivery health care service in any government health facility. 2. Under this scheme, private sector health care providers of certain specialties can volunteer to provide services at nearby government health facilities. Which of the statements given above is/are correct? (a) 1 only. (b) 2 only (c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2 | B | Statement 1 is incorrect: It seeks to provide fixed-day assured, comprehensive and quality antenatal care universally to all pregnant women (in 2nd and 3rd trimester) on the 9th of every month. It does not extend to post-delivery healthcare services. Statement 2 is correct: The scheme encourages private sector doctors and specialists to volunteer their services. https://pmsma.mohfw.gov.in/ |
| 60. With reference to the Pradhan Mantri Shram Yogi Maan-Dhan (PM-SYM) Yojana, consider the following statements: 1. The entry age group for enrolment in the scheme is 21 to 40 years. 2. Age specific contribution shall be made by the beneficiary. 3. Each subscriber under the scheme shall receive a minimum pension of 3,000 per month after attaining the age of 60 years. 4. Family pension is applicable to the spouse and unmarried daughters. Which of the statements given above is/are correct? (a) 1, 3 and 4. (b) 2 and 3 only (c) 2 only (d) 1, 2 and 4 | B | Statement 1 is incorrect: The Entry age is 18 to 40 years. Statement 2 is correct: It is a voluntary and contributory pension scheme. Through ‘auto-debit’ facility, the subscriber will pay from the date of joining PM-SYM till the age of 60 years. The Central Government will also give equal matching contribution in his pension account. Statement 3 is correct: Each subscriber under the scheme shall receive a minimum pension of 3,000 per month after attaining the age of 60 years. Statement 4 is incorrect: Family pension is applicable only to spouse. https://www.epfindia.gov.in/site_docs/PDFs/MiscPDFs/Scheme_PM-SYM.pdf |
| 61. Consider the following statements regarding “Nari Shakti Vandan Adhiniyam’: 1. Provisions will come into effect from the 18th Lok Sabha. 2. This will be in force for 15 years after becoming an Act. 3. There are provisions for the reservation of seats for Scheduled Castes Women within the quota reserved for the Scheduled Castes. Which of the statements given above are correct? (a) 1, 2 and 3 (b) 1 and 2 only (c) 2 and 3 only (d) 1 and 3 only. | C | The Women’s Reservation Bill is named Nari Shakti Vandan Adhiniyam. • Statement 1 is incorrect: The reservation will come into effect after a delimitation exercise is undertaken. • Statement 2 is correct: The reservation would continue for a period of 15 years • Statement 3 is correct: There would be a quota for SCs and STs within the reserved seats for women. The total seats reserved for Scheduled Castes and Scheduled Tribes in the House or Assembly, 33% will be set aside for women belonging to these communities.https://m.economictimes.com/news/how-to/nari-shakti-vandan-adhiniyam-here-are-the-key-points-of-the-womens-reservation-bill/articleshow/103787214.cms |
| 62. Which of the following statements about Exercise Mitra Shakti-2023′ are correct ? 1. This was a joint military exercise between India and Bangladesh. 2. It commenced in Aundh (Pune). 3. Joint response during counter-terrorism operations was a goal of this operation. 4. Indian Air Force was a part of this exercise. Select the answer using the code given below : (a) 1,2 and 3 (b) 1,2 and 4 (c) 1,3 and 4 (d) 2,3 and 4 | D | ° Statement 1 is incorrect: Conducted between India and Sri-Lanka (not Bangladesh) ° Statement 2 is correct: It commenced in Aundh (Pune). ° Statement 3 is correct: Joint response during counter-terrorism operations was a goal of this operation. ° Statement 4 is correct: 15 personnel from Indian Air Force and five personnel from Sri Lankan Air Force are also participated in the exercise. Source: https://pib.gov.in/PressReleaseIframePage.aspx?PRID=1977339 |
| 63. A Writ of Prohibition is an order issued by the Supreme Court or High Courts to: (a) a government officer prohibiting him from taking a particular action. (b) the Parliament/Legislative Assembly to pass a law on Prohibition. (c) the lower court prohibiting continuation of proceedings in a case. (d) the Government prohibiting it from following an unconstitutional policy | C | The primary purpose of the writ of prohibition is to prevent a lower court, administrative body, or tribunal from exceeding its jurisdiction or acting in a manner contrary to the principles of natural justice. It acts as a judicial command, directing the court or tribunal to cease proceedings that are beyond its legal authority. Source: https://www.freelaw.in/legalarticles/The-Writ-of-Prohibition |
| 64. Consider the following statements: (a) It is the Governor of the State who recognizes and declares any community of that State as a Scheduled Tribe. (b) A community declared as a Scheduled Tribe in a State need not be so in another State.Which of the statements given above is/are correct? (a) 1 only (b) 2 only (c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2 | B | Statement 1 is incorrect: According to the Article 342, the President may, with respect to any State or Union territory, and where it is a state, after consultation with the Governor there of by public notification, specify the tribes or tribal communities or parts of or groups within tribes or tribal communities which shall, for the purposes of this constitution, is deemed to be scheduled tribes in relation to that state or Union Territory, as the case may be Statement 2 is correct: The list of Scheduled Tribes is State/UT specific and a community declared as a Scheduled Tribe in a State need not be so in another State. Source: https://ncst.nic.in/content/frequently-asked-questions#:~:text=Thus%20the%20list%20of%20Scheduled,issued%20as%20the%20Constitution%20Orders. |
| 65. With reference to Union Budget, consider the following statements: 1. The Union Finance Minister on behalf of the Prime Minister lays the Annual Financial Statement before both the Houses of Parliament. 2. At the Union level, no demand for a grant can be made except on the recommendation of the President of India.Which of the statements given above is/are correct? (a) 1 only (b) 2 only (c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2 | B | Statement 1 is incorrect: It is the President and not Union Finance Minister who lays the Annual Financial Statement. According to Article 112, the President shall in respect of every financial year cause to be laid before both the Houses of Parliament a statement of the estimated receipts and expenditure of the Government of India for that year, in this Part of this Constitution referred to as the “annual financial statement Statement 2 is correct: According to the Article 113 (3), no demand for a grant shall be made except on the recommendation of the President. |
| 66. Who of the following is the author of the books “The India Way” and “Why Bharat Matters” ? (a) Bhupender Yadav (b) Nalin Mehta (c) Shashi Tharoor (d) Subrahmanyam Jaishankar | D | “The India Way” and “Why Bharat Matters” are authored by Dr. Subrahmanyam Jaishankar. |
| 67. Consider the following pairs: Country Reason for being in the news 1. Argentina Worst economic crisis 2. Sudan War between the country’s regular army and paramilitary forces 3. Turkey Rescinded its membership of NATO How many of the pairs given above are correctly matched ? (a) Only one pair (b) Only two pairs (c) All three pairs (d) None of the pairs | B | • Pair 1 is correctly matched: Argentina has been in the news for experiencing a severe economic crisis. Latin America’s third-biggest economy is facing dire economic challenges after decades of debt and financial mismanagement, with inflation surpassing 160 percent year-on-year and 40 percent of Argentinians living in poverty. • Pair 2 is correctly matched: There has been an ongoing conflict between the country’s regular army and paramilitary forces. Since mid-April of 2023, two military groups inside Sudan have been fighting: The Sudanese Armed Forces, or SAF, and the Rapid Support Forces, or RSF. They began fighting in 2023 after disagreeing about how to share power following a military coup in late 2021. • Pair 3 is incorrectly matched: Turkey has not rescinded its membership of NATO; it remains a member. As of 2024, no member state has rescinded their membership, although it has been considered by several countries including Turkey. |
| 68. Consider the following statements: Statement-1: Sumed pipeline is a strategic route for Persian Gulf oil and natural gas shipments to Europe. Statement-II :Sumed pipeline connects the Red Sea with the Mediterranean Sea. Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements? (a) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II explains Statement-I (b) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct, but Statement-II does not explain Statement-I (c) Statement-I is correct, but Statement-II is incorrect (d) Statement-I is incorrect, but Statement-Il is correct | A | Statement 1 is correct: The Suez Canal and the SUMED Pipeline are strategic routes for Persian Gulf crude oil, petroleum products, and liquefied natural gas (LNG) shipments to Europe and North America. Statement 2 is correct: Located in Egypt, the Suez Canal connects the Red Sea with the Mediterranean Sea, and it is a critical chokepoint because of the large volumes of energy commodities that flow through it. |
| 69. Consider the following statements: 1. The Red Sea receives very little precipitation in any form. 2. No water enters the Red Sea from rivers. Which of the statements given above is/are correct? (a) 1 only (b) 2 only (c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2 | C | Statement 1 and Statement 2 are correct: No water enters the Red Sea from rivers, and rainfall is scant; but the evaporation loss—in excess of 80 inches per year—is made up by an inflow through the eastern channel of the Bab el-Mandeb Strait from the Gulf of Aden. Source: https://www.britannica.com/place/Red-Sea |
| 70. According to the Environmental Protection Agency (EPA), which one of the following is the largest source of sulphur dioxide emissions? (a) Locomotives using fossil fuels (b) Ships using fossil fuels. (c) Extraction of metals from ores (d) Power plants using fossil fuels | D | Option (d) is correct: The largest source of SO2 in the atmosphere is the burning of fossil fuels by power plants and other industrial facilities. Smaller sources of SO2 emissions include: industrial processes such as extracting metal from ore; natural sources such as volcanoes; and locomotives, ships and other vehicles and heavy equipment that burn fuel with a high sulfur content. Source: https://www.epa.gov/so2-pollution/sulfur-dioxide-basics |
| 71. Who was the Provisional President of the Constituent Assembly before Dr. Rajendra Prasad took over? (a) C. Rajagopalachari (b) Dr. B.R. Ambedkar. (c) T.T. Krishnamachari (d) Dr. Sachchidananda Sinha | D | Option (d) is correct: Dr Sachidanand Sinha was the first president of the Constituent Assembly. Source: https://eoi.gov.in/eoisearch/MyPrint.php?4645?000/0001 |
| 72. With reference to the Government of India Act, 1935, consider the following statements: 1. It provided for the establishment of an All India Federation based on the union of the British Indian Provinces and Princely States. 2. Defence and Foreign Affairs were kept under the control of the federal legislature. Which of the statements given above is/are correct? (a) 1 only (b) 2 only. (c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2 | A | Statement 1 is correct: It provided for the establishment of an All India Federation based on the union of the British Indian Provinces and Princely States. Statement 2 is incorrect: Defence and Foreign Affairs were reserved subjects under governor general |
| 73. Which one of the following is a work attributed to playwright Bhasa? (a) Kavyalankara (b) Natyashastra (c) Madhyama-vyayoga (d) Mahabhashya | C | This is a story from the ‘Mahabharatha.’ Bhima meets his son, Ghatothkacha, after many years. They don’t recognise each other and get into a duel. Why? What happens later? This is what the story is about. The classical Sanskrit poet of yore, Bhasa, wrote the play, ‘Madhyamavyayoga,’ based on this popular episode in the great Indian epic, ‘Mahabharatha. |
| 74. Sanghabhuti, an Indian Buddhist monk, who travelled to China at the fourth century AD, was the author of a commentary on : (a) Prajnaparamita Sutra (b) Visuddhimagga, (c) Sarvastivada Vinaya (d) Lalitavistara | C | Sanghabhuti is reported to be the first Buddhist scholar of Kashmir who went to China. He had specialized in the Abhidharmavibhasa. His name is given in Chinese transcription as Seng-kia-po-ch’eng and in translation as Chong hien. He reached the northern capital of China in 381 A.D. and was received by the leading Buddhist scholars in China. At their request, Sanghabhuti translated a number of Buddhist texts into Chinese. He is said to have translated three works uptill 384 A.D. The most important work among these was an extensive commentary on the disciplinary code, i.e., the Vinaya Pitaka of the Sarvastivada schools. Source: https://books.google.co.in/books?id=_kb815NoRRoC&pg=PA13&lpg=PA13&dq=Sanghabhuti+was+the+author+of&source=bl&ots=3a-xUpQ6UI&sig=ACfU3U3yoIaRdRjiomcpnF63J3XuDiAU5Q&hl=en&sa=X&ved=2ahUKEwjWmtPWm-CGAxVZd2wGHSyFBik4ChDoAXoECAMQAw#v=onepage&q=Sanghabhuti%20was%20the%20author%20of&f=false |
| 75. Consider the following properties included in the World Heritage List released by UNESCO: 1. Shantiniketan 2. Rani-ki-Vav 3. Sacred Ensembles of the Hoysalas 4.Mahabodhi Temple Complex at Bodhgaya How many of the above properties were included in 2023? (a) Only one (b) Only two (c) Only three (d) All four | B | Rani ki vav was built as a memorial to an 11th-century AD king Bhimdev I . It was added to the list of UNESCO’s World Heritage Sites on 22 June 2014. In 2023, UNESCO has also included Shantiniketan in the World Heritage List. Source: https://timesofindia.indiatimes.com/travel/travel-news/unesco-adds-27-new-sites-to-its-heritage-list-indias-shantiniketan-hoyasala-ensembles-also-added/articleshow/103785717.cms |
| 76. As per Article 368 of the Constitution of India, the Parliament may amend any provision of the Constitution by way of: 1. Addition 2. Variation 3. Repeal Select the correct answer using the code given below: (a) 1 and 2 only (b) 2 and 3 only (c) 1 and 3 only (d) 1, 2 and 3 | D | Article 368 of the Constitution of India grants the Parliament the power to amend the Constitution by way of: Addition, Variation and Repeal. Source: https://www.constitutionofindia.net/articles/article-368-power-of-parliament-to-amend-the-constitution-and-procedure-therefor/ |
| 77. Consider the following countries: 1. Italy 2. Japan 3. Nigeria 4. South Korea 5. South Africa Which of the above countries are frequently mentioned in the media for their low birth rates, or ageing population or declining population? (a) 1, 2 and 4 (b) 1, 3 and 5 (c) 2 and 4 only. (d) 3 and 5 only | A | According to the World Economic Forum: 1.Italy: A pact for senior citizens Close to a quarter of Italy’s population is aged over 65, Statista data shows, ranking it fourth among the world’s most ageing societies. 2. Japan: Low birth rates, long life With the world’s second-largest ageing population, Japan is also contending with a low birth rate, leading the country’s Prime Minister Fumio Kishida to announce in January 2023 that “Japan is standing on the verge of whether we can continue to function as a society”. 4.South Korea: Tackling a future ageing population While South Korea does not currently have an ageing population, it may be heading that way. The country’s fertility rate is the lowest in the world, with the UN warning in 2021 that South Korea was on track to halve its population by 2100. Nigeria and South Africa have high fertility rates and their population are increasing. |
| 78. Which of the following statements are correct in respect of a Money Bill in the Parliament ? 1. Article 109 mentions special procedure in respect of Money Bills. 2. A Money Bill shall not be introduced in the Council of States. 3. The Rajya Sabha can either approve the Bill or suggest changes but cannot reject it. 4. Amendments to a Money Bill suggested by the Rajya Sabha have to be accepted by the Lok Sabha. Select the answer using the code given below: (a) 1 and 2 only (b) 2 and 3 only. (c) 1, 2 and 3 (d) 1, 3 and 4 | C | Statement 1 is correct: Special procedure in respect of money bills regulation that is due to pass in the Indian Parliament has to go through either the Rajya Sabha or Lok Sabha. Statement 2 is correct: A Money Bill shall not be introduced in the Council of States. Statement 3 is correct: After a Money Bill has been passed by the House of the People it shall be transmitted to the Council of States for its recommendations and the Council of States shall within a period of fourteen days from the date of receipt of the Bill return the Bill to the House of the People with its recommendations and the House of the People may thereupon either accept or reject all or any of the recommendations of the Council of States. Statement 4 is incorrect: If the House of the People accepts any of the recommendations of the Council of States, the Money Bill shall be deemed to have been passed by both Houses with the amendments recommended by the Council of States and accepted by the House of the People. |
| 79. Which of the following is/are correctly matched in terms of equivalent rank in the three services of Indian Defence forces? Army Airforce Navy 1. Brigadier Air Commodore Commander 2. MajorGeneral Air Vice Marshal Vice Admiral 3. Major Squadron Leader Lieutenant Commander 4. Lieutenant Colonel Group Captain Captain Select the correct answer using the code given below: (a) 1 and 4 (b) 1 and 3 (c) 2, 3 and 4 (d) 3 only | D | |
| 80. The North Eastern Council (NEC) was established by the North Eastern Council Act, 1971. Subsequent to the amendment of NEC Act in 2002, the Council comprises which of the following members? 1. Governor of the Constituent State 2. Chief Minister of the Constituent State 3. Three Members to be nominated by the President of India 4. The Home Minister of India Select the correct answer using the code given below: (a) 1, 2 and 3 only (b) 1, 3 and 4 only (c) 2 and 4 only (D) 1, 2, 3 and 4 | A | Option A is Correct.The NEC Act was amended by the Parliament in 2002 (Act No. 68 of 2002). The ‘North Eastern Areas’ now means the area comprising the States of Assam, Manipur, Meghalaya, Nagaland, Tripura, Arunachal Pradesh, Sikkim and Mizoram. The Council now has as its members the Governors of the States mentioned above, the Chief Ministers of the said States and three Members nominated by the President. The President will nominate the Chairman of the Council and he need not be nominated from amongst the other Members. The North Eastern Council (Amendment) Act, 2002 enjoined the NEC to act as a ‘regional planning body’. Home Minister of India is not a member according to the act. |
| 81. Consider the following statements : Statement-I : If the United States of America (USA) were to default on its debt, holders of us Treasury Bonds will not be able to exercise their claims to receive payment. Statement-JI: The USA Government debt is not backed by any hard assets, but only by the faith of the Government. Which one of the following is correct in respe-ct of the above statements ? (a) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II explains Statement-I (b) Both Statement-I and Statement–11 are correct, but Statement-II does not explain Statement-I (c) Statement-I is correct, but Statement-II is incorrect (d) Statement-I is incorrect, but Statement-II is correct, | A | The overt default by the U.S. government on its gold bonds in 1933. The United States had in clear and entirely unambiguous terms promised the bondholders to redeem these bonds in gold coin. Then it refused to do so, offering depreciated paper currency instead. The case went ultimately to the Supreme Court, which on a 5-4 vote, upheld the sovereign power of the government to default if it chose to. (Source: https://thehill.com/opinion/finance/575722-the-us-has-never-defaulted-on-its-debt-except-the-four-times-it-did/) |
| 82. Consider the following statements : Statement-I : Syndicated lending spreads the risk of borrower default across multiple lenders. Statement-II : The syndicated loan can be a fixed amount/lump sum of funds, but cannot be a credit line. Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements ? (a) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II explains Statement-I (b) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct, but Statement-II does not explain Statement-I (c) Statement-I is correct, but Statement-II is incorrect (d) Statement-I is incorrect but St t is correct | C | Statement 1 is correct: Syndicated loans allow multiple lenders to form a group and contribute a certain portion of a full loan. These types of loans allow lenders to spread the risk among others so they aren’t liable for the full amount in the event of a default Statement 2 is incorrect: Lenders are referred to as a syndicate, which works together to provide funds for a single borrower. The borrower can be a corporation, a large project, or a sovereign government. The loan can involve a fixed amount of funds, a credit line, or a combination of the two.Source: https://www.investopedia.com/terms/s/syndicatedloan.asp#:~:text=Lenders%20are%20referred%20to%20as,a%20combination%20of%20the%20two. |
| 83. Consider the following statements in respect of the digital rupee: 1. It is a sovereign currency issued by the Reserve Bank of India (RBI) in alignment with its monetary policy. 2. It appears as a liability on the RBI’s balance sheet. 3. It is insured against inflation by its very design. 4. It is freely convertible against commercial bank money and cash.Which of the statements given above are correct? (a) 1 and 2 only (b) 1 and 3 only (c) 2 and 4 only (d) 1,2 and 4 | D | Sovereign Currency issued by Central Bank Liability on Central Bank’s Balance Sheet Accepted as the medium of payment as legal tender Free convertible against Cash Lowers cost of issuance of Money and transactionshttps://www.bankofbaroda.in/personal-banking/digital-products/bobworld-digital-rupee |
| 84. With reference to ancient India, Gautama Buddha was generally known by which of the following epithets ? 1. Nayaputta 2.Shakyamuni 3. Tathagata Select the correct answer using the code given below: (a) 1 only , (b) 2 and 3 only (c) 1, 2 and 3 (d) None of the above are epithets of one of the Gautama Buddha | B | Nayaputta: This epithet is associated with Mahavira, the founder of Jainism, rather than Gautama Buddha. Shakyamuni: This means “Sage of the Shakyas,” referring to the fact that Buddha was a prince of the Shakya clan. Tathagata: This is a term Buddha used to refer to himself, meaning “one who has thus gone” or “one who has thus come.”Source: https://cswr.hds.harvard.edu/news/2016/04/07/mahavir-jayanti |
| 85. Consider the following information : Archaeological Site State Description 1. Chandraketugarh Odisha Trading Port town 2. Inamgaon Maharashtra Chalcolithic site 3. Mangadu Kerala Megalithic site 4. Salihundam Andhra Pradesh Rock-cut cave shrines In which of the above rows is the given information correctly matched? (a) 1 and 2 (b) 2 and 3 (c) 3 and 4 (d) 1 and 4 | B | QC Pair 1 is incorrectly matched: Chandraketugarh is actually in West Bengal, not Odisha. It is known as an important archaeological site with remnants of ancient city life and not specifically as a trading port town. Pair 2 is correctly matched: Inamgaon is a Chalcolithic site in Maharashtra. Pair 3 is correctly matched: Mangadu is not in Kerala. The site associated with Megalithic culture in Kerala is Edakkal. However, the information provided does not correspond to a known archaeological site in Kerala, making this match incorrect. Pair 4 is incorrectly matched: Salihundam, located in Andhra Pradesh, is known for its Buddhist stupas and not for rock-cut cave shrines.Source: https://www.egyankosh.ac.in/bitstream/123456789/67704/1/Block-1.pdf https://egyankosh.ac.in/bitstream/123456789/41362/1/Unit-3.pdf https://www.archaeology.kerala.gov.in/monuments/madankavu-urnburial-site/44 aptourism.gov.in/destinations/37/salihundam |
| 86. Who of the following rulers of medieval India gave permission to the Portuguese to build a fort at Bhatkal ? (a) Krishnadevaraya (b) Narasimha Saluva (c) Muhammad Shah III (d) Yusuf Adil Shah | A | On Albuquerque’s request, Krishnadeva Raya permitted the construction of a fort at Bhatkal Source: https://egyankosh.ac.in/bitstream/123456789/68908/3/Unit-4.pdf |
| 87. Which reference to revenue collection by Cornwallis, consider the following statements : 1. Under the Ryotwari Settlement of revenue collection, the peasants were exempted from revenue payment in case of bad harvests or natural calamities. 2. Under the Permanent Settlement in Bengal, if the Zamindar failed to pay his revenues to the state, on or before the fixed date, he would be removed from his Zamindari.Which of the statements given above is/are correct? (a) 1 only (b) 2 only (c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2 | B | In this system, the peasants or cultivators were regarded as the owners of the land. They had ownership rights, could sell, mortgage or gift the land. The taxes were directly collected by the government from the peasants. The rates were 50% in dryland and 60% in the wetland. The rates were high and unlike the Permanent System, they were open to being increased. If they failed to pay the taxes, they were evicted by the government. Source: https://egyankosh.ac.in/bitstream/123456789/20325/1/Unit-15.pdf |
| 88. Consider the following statements: 1. There are no parables in Upanishads. 2. Upanishads were composed earlier than the Puranas.Which of the statements given above is/are correct? (a) 1 only (b) 2 only (c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2 | B | Statement 1 is incorrect: There are parables in the Upanishads. The Upanishads use parables and stories to convey philosophical ideas and spiritual teachings. Therefore, statement 1 is incorrect. Statement 2 is correct: The Upanishads were composed earlier than the Puranas. The Upanishads date back to around the early part of the first millennium BCE, while the Puranas were composed much later, between 300 CE and 1500 CE. Therefore, statement 2 is correct. Source: https://motherandsriaurobindo.in/disciples/nolini-kanta-gupta/books/parables-from-the-upanishads/ |
| 89. Consider the following statements : 1. India is a member of the International Grains Council. 2. A country needs to be a member of the International Grains Council for exporting or importing rice and wheat. Which of the statements given above is/are correct? (a) 1 only (b) 2 only (c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2 | A | Statement 1 is correct: India is a member of the International Grains Council (IGC), an inter-governmental forum of exporting and importing countries for co-operation in wheat and coarse grain matters which was previously known as International Wheat Council up to 1995. It administers the Grains Trade Convention 1995. Statement 2 is incorrect: Membership in the International Grains Council (IGC) is not mandatory for a country to export or import rice and wheat. The IGC is an intergovernmental organization that works to improve cooperation and transparency in the global grains trade. While membership offers benefits like: Access to valuable market information and analysis Participation in discussions on market developments and policies Networking opportunities with other grain traders Countries can still import and export rice and wheat without being a member. However, membership can be advantageous for countries that are major players in the grains trade. Source: https://www.igc.int/en/about/aboutus.aspx |
| 90. WhIch one of the following was the latest inclusion in the Intangible Cultural Heritage List of UNESCO ? (a) Chhau dance (b) Durga puja (c) Garba dance (d) Kumbh mela . | C | ‘Garba of Gujarat’ has been inscribed on the UNESCO’s Representative List of the Intangible Cultural Heritage of Humanity. Source: https://pib.gov.in/PressReleseDetailm.aspx?PRID=1989737#:~:text=%27Garba%20of%20Gujarat%27%20has%20been,Intangible%20Cultural%20Heritage%20of%20Humanity.&text=Prime%20Minister%2C%20Shri%20Narendra%20Modi,2023%2C%20held%20at%20Red%20Fort |
| 91. How many Delimitation Commissions have been constituted by the Government of India till December 2023? (a) One (b) Two (c) Three (d) Four | D | Option (d) is correct: In India, such Delimitation Commissions have been constituted 4 times – in 1952 under the Delimitation Commission Act, 1952, in 1963 under Delimitation Commission Act, 1962, in 1973 under Delimitation Act, 1972 and in 2002 under Delimitation Act, 2002.https://www.eci.gov.in/Documents/Delimitation/FAQ-Delimitation.pdf |
| 92. The Constitution (71st Amendment) Act, 1992 amends the Eighth Schedule to the Constitution to include which of the following languages? 1. Konkani 2. Manipuri 3. Nepali 4. MaithiliSelect the correct answer using the code given below: (a) 1,2 and 3 (b) 1,2 and 4 (c) 1,3 and 4 (d) 2,3 and 4 | A | Option A is correct: It is proposed to include Konkani, Manipuri and Nepali languages in the Eighth Schedule to the Constitution. The Bill seeks to give effect to this decision. https://www.india.gov.in/my-government/constitution-india/amendments/constitution-india-seventy-first-amendment-act-1992 |
| 93. Consider the following pairs: Party Its Leader 1. Bharatiya Jana Sangh Dr. Shyama Prasad Mukherjee 2. Socialist Party C. Rajagopalachari 3. Congress for Democracy Jagjivan Ram 4. Swatantra Party Acharya Narendra Dev How many of the above are correctly matched? (a) Only one (b) Only two (c) Only three (d) All four | B | Pair 1 is correctly matched: Dr. Shayma Prasad Mukharjee was the founder of Bharatiya Jana Sangh, First Minister of Commerce and Industry of Independent India. https://www.constitutionofindia.net/members/syama-prasad-mookerjee/ Pair 2 is incorrectly matched: The Socialist Party is an independent incarnation of the Congress Socialist Party (CSP) formed in 1934 within the Congress. The CSP was founded by Jaiprakash Narayan, Acharya Narendra Dev, Dr Ram Manohar Lohia. It merged itself into the Janata Party in 1977 immediately after the independence. https://spi.org.in/about/history/ Pair 3 is correctly matched: The Congress for Democracy (CFD) was an Indian political party founded in 1977 by Jagjivan Ram. https://theprint.in/opinion/emergencys-legacy-how-lok-sabha-polls-from-1977-1989-changed-indias-political-landscape/1991010/ Pair 4 is incorrectly matched: Chakravarti Rajagopalachar, Founder and leader of the Swatantra (Independent) Party in 1959. https://www.britannica.com/topic/Swatantra-Party” with “Pair 1 is correct: Dr. Shayma Prasad Mukharjee was the founder of Bharatiya Jana Sangh, First Minister of Commerce and Industry of Independent India. https://www.constitutionofindia.net/members/syama-prasad-mookerjee/ Pair 2 is incorrect: The Socialist Party is an independent incarnation of the Congress Socialist Party (CSP) formed in 1934 within the Congress. The CSP was founded by Jaiprakash Narayan, Acharya Narendra Dev, Dr Ram Manohar Lohia. It merged itself into the Janata Party in 1977 immediately after the independence. https://spi.org.in/about/history/ Pair 3 is correct: The Congress for Democracy (CFD) was an Indian political party founded in 1977 by Jagjivan Ram. https://theprint.in/opinion/emergencys-legacy-how-lok-sabha-polls-from-1977-1989-changed-indias-political-landscape/1991010/ Pair 4 is incorrect: Chakravarti Rajagopalachar, Founder and leader of the Swatantra (Independent) Party in 1959. https://www.thehindu.com/news/national/tamil-nadu/swatantra-partys-history-reiterates-importance-of-strong-opposition-in-society-author-aditya-balasubramanian/article67635655.ece” |
| 94. Which of the following statements are correct about the Constitution of India? 1. Powers of the Municipalities are given in Part IX A of the Constitution. 2. Emergency provisions are given in Part XVIII of the Constitution. 3. Provisions related to the amendment of the Constitution are given in Part XX of the Constitution. Select the answer using the code given below: (a) 1 and 2 only (b) 2 and 3 only (c) 1 and 3 only (d) 1, 2 and 3 | D | “Statement 1 is correct: Powers, authority and responsibilities of Municipalities, etc. are covered under theTHE CONSTITUTION OF INDIA under Part IXA.—The Municipalities. ) https://www.mea.gov.in/Images/pdf1/Part9.pdf Statement 2 is correct: Emergency Provisions Part XVIII of the Constitution contains provisions for emergency situations, including national, localised and financial emergencies. https://www.constitutionofindia.net/parts/part-xviii/#:~:text=Emergency%20Provisions,national%2C%20localised%20and%20financial%20emergencies.&text=Article%20352%3A%20Proclamation%20of%20Emergency,Effect%20of%20Proclamation%20of%20Emergency. ” with “Statement 1 is correct: Powers, authority and responsibilities of Municipalities, etc. THE CONSTITUTION OF INDIA. (Part IXA.—The Municipalities. https://www.mea.gov.in/Images/pdf1/Part9.pdf Statement 3 is correct: PART XX AMENDMENT OF THE CONSTITUTION – Power of Parliament to amend the Constitution and procedure therefor https://www.mea.gov.in/Images/pdf1/Part20.pdf” |
| 95. Which one of the following statements is correct as per the Constitution of India? (a) Inter-State trade and commerce is a State subject under the State List. (b) Inter-State migration is a State subject under the State List. (c) Inter-State quarantine is a Union subject under the Union List. (d) Corporation tax is a State subject under the State List. | C | Statement1. Interstate trade and commerce is under Union List Statement 2. Inter-state migration is inder Union list Statement 3 is correct. Statement 4. Corpotration tax under Union listhttps://www.mea.gov.in/Images/pdf1/S7.pdf |
| 96. Under which of the following Articles of the Constitution of India, has the Supreme Court of India placed the Right to Privacy? (a) Article 15 (b) Article 16 (c) Article 19 (d) Article 21 | D | Supreme Court ruled that Right to Privacy is “intrinsic to life and personal liberty” and is inherently protected under Article 21 and as a part of the freedoms guaranteed by Part III of the Constitution. https://loksabhadocs.nic.in/Refinput/New_Reference_Notes/English/Right%20to%20Privacy%20as%20a%20fundamental%20Right.pdf |
| 97. What are the duties of the Chief of Defence staff (CDS) as Head of the Department of Military Affairs? 1. Permanent Chairman of Chiefs of Staff Committee 2 Exercise military command over the three Service Chiefs 3. Principal Military Advisor to Defence Minister on all tri-service matters Select the correct answer using the code given below: (a) 1,2 and 3 (b) 1 and 2 only (c) 2 and 3 only (d) 1 and 3 only | D | The duties and functions of the Chief of Defence Staff (CDS) include the following: To head the Department of Military Affairs in Ministry of Defence and function as its Secretary. To act as the Principal Military Advisor to Hon’ble Raksha Mantri on all Tri-Service matters. To function as the Permanent Chairman of the Chiefs of Staff Committee To administer the Tri-Service organizations/agencies/commands. To be a member of Defence Acquisition Council chaired by Hon’ble Raksha Mantri. To function as the Military Advisor to the Nuclear Command Authority. To bring about jointness in operation, logistics, transport, training, support services, communications, repairs and maintenance, etc of the three Services. To ensure optimal utilisation of infrastructure and rationalise it through jointness among the Services. To implement Five-Year Defence Capital Acquisition Plan and Two-Year roll-on Annual Acquisition Plans, as a follow up of Integrated Capability Development Plan. To assign inter-services prioritisation to capital acquisition proposals based on the anticipated budget. To bring about reforms in the functioning of three Services with the aim to augment combat capabilities of the Armed Forces by reducing wasteful expenditure. Statement 2 is incorrect: CDS will not exercise any military command, including over the three Service Chiefs, so as to be able to provide impartial advice to the political leadership. Source: https://pib.gov.in/Pressreleaseshare.aspx?PRID=1597425 |
| 98. Operations undertaken by the Army towards upliftment of the local population in remote areas to include addressing of their basic needs is called: (a) Operation Sankalp (b) Operation Maitri (c) Operation Sadbhavana (d) Operation Madad | C | Option C is correct: As part of ‘Operation SADBHAVANA’, Indian Army is undertaking multiple welfare activities such as running of Army Goodwill Schools, Infrastructure Development Projects and Education Tours etc. for the children living in remote areas of Union Territory (UT) of Ladakh. To improve the standard of education and to provide them with quality education, Indian Army is presently running seven (07) Army Goodwill Schools (AGS) under ‘Operation SADBHAVANA’ in Ladakh Region. https://pib.gov.in/PressReleasePage.aspx?PRID=1895974 |
| 99. The longest border between any two countries in the world is between: (a) Canada and the United States of America. (b) Chile and Argentina (c) China and India (d) Kazakhstan and Russian Federation | A | 1) The Canada–United States land boundary is the longest in the world at 6,435 kilometers (3,999 miles). It begins in the outlet of the Passamaquoddy Bay in the Atlantic Ocean and ends in the west where the Strait of Juan de Fuca meets the Pacific Ocean. https://sovereignlimits.com/boundaries/canada-united-states-land 2) The Andes Mountains form a spectacular border between Chile and Argentina, stretching 5,308 km (3,298 mi). Crossing between the two countries will offer you some incredible views and the chance to experience two unique and dynamic South American countries. https://ecochile.travel/crossing-chile-argentina-border/ 3) India shares 3488 Km of border with China that runs along the States of Jammu & Kashmir, Himachal Pradesh, Uttarakhand, Sikkim and Arunachal Pradesh. https://www.mha.gov.in/sites/default/files/INDO%20CHINA_05052017.pdf 4) The land boundary between Kazakhstan and Russia is the second longest border in the world and spans more than 7,800 kilometers (4,890 miles). https://sovereignlimits.com/boundaries/kazakhstan-russia-land |
| 100. Which of the following statements about the Ethics Committee in the Lok Sabha are correct? 1. Initially it was an ad-hoc Committee. 2. Only a Member of the Lok Sabha can make a complaint relating to unethical conduct of a member of the Lok Sabha. 3. This Committee cannot take up any matter which is sub-judice. Select the answer using the code given below: (a) 1 and 2 only (b) 2 and 3 only (c) 1 and 3 only (d) 1, 2 and 3 | D | Statement 1 is correct: The Committee while appreciating the endeavours of the predecessor Committees observed that the ground realities have not changed and even today it continues to be an ad-hoc Committee of the House.Introduction Ethics Committee.pdf (loksabhadocs.nic.in)Statement 2 is correct: Any person can complain against a Member through another Lok Sabha MP, along with evidence of the alleged misconduct, and an affidavit stating that the complaint is not “false, frivolous, or vexatious”. If the Member himself complains, the affidavit is not needed.https://indianexpress.com/article/explained/ls-ethics-committee-its-constitution-members-8999613/Lok Sabha’s Ethics Committee: its history, constitution and members | Explained News – The Indian ExpressStatement 3 is correct: The Committee on Ethics shall not take up any matter which is sub-judice and the decision of the Committee as to whether such matter is or is not sub-judice shall for the purposes of these rules be treated as final. Lok Sabha’s Ethics Committee: its history, constitution and members | Explained News – The Indian Express |
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