UPSC 2022 Question Paper with Detailed Explanation of Prelims

UPSC 2022 Question Paper

The Civil Services Examination (CSE) Prelims 2022 was conducted on June 5, 2022, by the Union Public Service Commission (UPSC). Aspirants looking for the Prelims 2022 question papers may not go anywhere else. The UPSC Prelims Question Paper 2022 for GS Paper I has been provided here by Study IQ with the answer key and detailed explanation. To assess their performance, candidates can check The UPSC Prelims 2022 Question Papers.

Additionally, we have made available the UPSC Prelims 2022 Answer Key, which was created by CSE Experts. This will enable applicants to evaluate their performance and start preparing for the UPSC Mains Exam as necessary.

UPSC 2022 Prelims Question Paper PDF

Union Public Service Commission administers the UPSC Civil Services Examination annually for selecting candidates for different administrative services at the centre level. The first stage of the exam is prelims which is being conducted in two parts on the same day.

• UPSC GS Paper I
• UPSC GS Paper II (CSAT)

Each paper lasts for two hours and carries 200 points. Both papers will receive negative marks. The IAS Prelims Syllabus should be reviewed by candidates to get a better understanding of the topics covered in the examination. Check the download link below:

UPSC 2022 Prelims Question Paper PDF
UPSC GS Paper I 2022	Download Link
UPSC GS Paper I 2022	Download Link

UPSC 2022 Mains Question Paper PDF

Nine traditional essay-style questions covering a range of subjects are included in the UPSC Mains examination, with two of them functioning as qualifying questions. The final ranking is based on the grades received in each of the obligatory papers (Papers I through VI) as well as the interview and personality test. The two qualifying papers and the seven papers that earned merit rankings in the UPSC Main Examination are listed below:

UPSC 2022 Mains Question Paper PDF
UPSC Mains GS Paper I	UPSC Mains GS Paper II
UPSC Mains GS Paper III	UPSC Mains GS Paper IV

UPSC 2022 Question Paper With Explanation

The objective paper, with 100 questions and 200 marks, is part of the UPSC Prelims Paper 1. The paper covers topics including science and technology, environment and ecology, politics, economy, history, and geography. The UPSC cut-off and whether a candidate has qualified for the first stage of the exam to write the UPSC Mains will be determined by the total scores of the UPSC Prelims 2022 GS Paper 1. The UPSC Prelims 2022 Questions have been mentioned below.

Q1. “Rapid Financing Instrument” and “Rapid Credit Facility” are related to the provisions of lending by which one of the following ?

(a) Asian Development Bank

(b) International Monetary Fund

(c) United Nations Environment Programme Finance Initiative

(d) World Bank

Answer: B

Explanation:

Option (b) is correct: Both, the “Rapid Financing Instrument” and the “Rapid Credit Facility”, are assistive credit lending facilities for Low-Income Countries (LICs) provided by the International Monetary Fund (IMF). 

• Rapid Financing Instrument (RFI):  It is a lending facility which provides rapid financial assistance. It is available to all member countries facing an urgent Balance of Payments (BoP) need. It is Flexible: It is a financial support more flexible to address the diverse needs of all the member countries and can be used in a wide range of circumstances. Assistance in the form of purchase: Financial assistance under the RFI is provided in the form of outright purchases without the need for a full fledged program or any reviews by the IMF. It is for richer economies: It is usually subscribed by non-PRGT eligible countries (particularly with richer economies).
• Rapid Credit Facility (RCF): This instrument is similar to the RFI except it provides rapid concessional financial assistance to low-income countries (LICs) who are facing BoP crisis. Made for Crisis: It was created under the Poverty Reduction and Growth Trust (PRGT) proposed in 1999 as part of a broader reform to make the IMF’s financial support more flexible and better tailored to the needs of crisis ridden countries. It is limited: Access under the RCF is subject to annual and cumulative limits, with higher access limits applying for the large natural disaster window. It is for poorer economies: It is usually subscribed by PRGT eligible countries (particularly with poorer economies

Economy > External Sector

Difficulty-Medium

Analysis- Factual and analytical

Question Type- Current Affairs/Static

Q2. With reference to the Indian economy, consider the following statements :

1. An increase in Nominal Effective Exchange Rate (NEER) indicates the appreciation of rupee.
2. An increase in the Real Effective Exchange Rate (REER) indicates an improvement in trade competitiveness.
3. An increasing trend in domestic inflation relative to inflation in other countries is likely to cause an increasing divergence between NEER and REER.

Which of the above statements are correct?

(a) 1 and 2 only

(b) 2 and 3 only

(c) 1 and 3 only

(d) 1, 2 and 3

Answer: C

Explanation:

• Statement 1 is correct: Appreciation in Nominal Effective Exchange Rate (NEER) increases the value of domestic currency relative to the weighted average of a basket foreign currencies (typically 6 major foreign currencies). 
• Statement 2 is incorrect: Real Effective Exchange Rate (REER) is a nation’s NEER but adjusted for inflation in the home country. Appreciation in REER would mean domestic currency getting stronger against foreign currencies. This would drive the cost of exports higher making them more expensive. This would result in a decline in competitiveness. 
• Statement 3 is correct: REER is the NEER after factoring in relative inflation (consumer price-based index). So when domestic inflation rises so does the difference between NEER and REER. 

Economy > Banking and Monetary Policy

Difficulty – Easy

Analysis – Conceptual

Question Type – Static

Q3. With reference to the Indian economy,  consider the following statements :

1. If the inflation is too high, the Reserve Bank of India (RBI) is likely to buy government securities.
2. If the rupee is rapidly depreciating, RBI is likely to sell dollars in the market.
3. If interest rates in the USA or European Union were to fall, that is likely to induce RBI to buy dollars.

Which of the statements given above are correct?

(a) 1 and 2 only

(b) 2 and 3 only

(c) 1 and 3 only

(d) 1, 2 and 3

Answer: B

Explanation: 

• Buying and selling Government Securities (G-Sec) is part of RBI’s Open Market Operations to manage and control circulation of liquidity (money) in the economy. Through such operations any central bank of any country manages inflation and interest rates in its respective economy. 
• Statement 1 is incorrect: If the inflation is too high, the RBI would sell G-Sec to absorb excess liquidity from the market and reduce its circulation to drive down the demand in the absence of excess money.
• Statement 2 is correct: When rupee depreciated in the international market against the Dollar, the RBI would sell dollars in the market to increase its supply in relation to the rupee. Hence, save the currency from further depreciation. 
• Statement 3 is correct: If interest rates in the USA or European Union fall in comparison to interest rates and rate of return in the Indian market, then Foreign Institutional Investors (FII) are likely to invest their money in Indian markets for greater returns. In such a case the RBI would buy dollars from the market and increase the supply of the Indian Rupees to keep investing in the Indian economy competitive and attractive. 

Economy > Banking and Monetary Policy

Difficulty – Easy

Analysis – Conceptual

Question Type – Static 

Q4. With reference to the “G20 Common Framework”, consider the statements :

1. It is an initiative endorsed by the G20 together with the Paris Club.
2. It is an initiative to support Low Income Countries with unsustainable debt.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

(a) 1 only

(b) 2 only

(c) Both 1 and 2

(d) Neither 1 nor 2

Answer: C

Explanation: 

• Both statements are correct: The Common Framework for debt treatment is an initiative beyond G20’s Debt Service Suspension Initiative (DSSI) also endorsed by the G20, together with the Paris Club to support, in a structural manner, Low Income Countries with unsustainable debt.  It is a way to temporarily ease the financing constraints for these countries and free up scarce money that they can instead use to mitigate the human and economic impact of the Covid-19 crisis. 

Economy > External Sector 

Difficulty – Medium

Analysis – Factual

Question Type – Current Affairs

Q5. With reference to the Indian economy, what are the advantages of “Inflation-Indexed Bonds  (IIBs)”?

1. Government can reduce the coupon rates on its borrowing by way of IIBs.
2. IIBs provide protection to the investors from uncertainty regarding inflation.
3. The interest received as well as capital gains on IIBs are not taxable.

Which of the statements given above are correct?

(a) 1 and 2 only

(b) 2 and 3 only

(c) 1 and 3 only

(d) 1, 2 and 3

Answer: A

Explanation: 

• Inflation-Indexed Bonds are financial instruments that attempt to protect the bonds’ purchasing power by tying interest and principal payments to an index of price changes.
• Statement 1 is correct: The government can reduce the coupon rates on its borrowing by way of IIBS as the government can influence rate of inflation through its policies and thus changing the underlying variables of IIBs. 
• Statement 2 is correct: Return on the IIBs are linked to the WPI, where interest rates are provided with protection against inflation by paying fixed coupon rate on the principle adjusted against inflation. This way investors are protected from uncertainty regarding inflation. 
• Statement 3 is incorrect: The bonds do not receive any special tax benefits. Income tax rates are applied on these bonds beyond the prescribed limit.

Economy > Public Finance and Fiscal Policy

Difficulty – Medium

Analysis – Conceptual

Question Type – Static

Q6. With reference to foreign-owned e-commerce firms operating in India, which of the following statements is/are correct?

1. They can sell their own goods in addition to offering their platforms as market-places.
2. The degree to which they can own big sellers on their platforms is limited.

Select the correct answer using the code given below:

(a) 1 only

(b) 2 only

(c) Both 1 and 2

(d) Neither 1 nor 2

Answer: D

Explanations: 

• Consumer Protection (E-Commerce) Rules, 2020 define e-commerce entity (also foreign owned) as any person who owns, operates or manages digital or electronic facility or platform for electronic commerce.
• Statement 1 is incorrect: As it is clear from the above definition, an e-commerce entity does not include a seller offering its services or goods for sale on a marketplace. 
• Statement 2 is incorrect: Consumer Protection (E-Commerce) (Amendment) Rules, 2021, has specified that an e-commerce marketplace entity shall not sell any goods owned or controlled by it on such e-commerce marketplace platform. All the sellers on the platform shall only be third party sellers, and no e-commerce store can be run on the e-commerce marketplace platform. Hence e commerce platform cannot own big sellers on their platform.

Economy > Applied Economics 

Difficulty – Hard

Analysis – Factual and Conceptual

Question Type – Current Affair

Q7. Which of the following activities constitute a real sector in the economy?

1. Farmers harvesting their crops
2. Textile mills converting raw cotton into fabrics
3. A commercial bank lending money to a trading company Rupee
4. A corporate body issuing Denominated Bonds overseas

Select the correct answer using the code given below:

(a) 1 and 2 only

(b) 2, 3 and 4 only

(c) 1, 3 and 4 only

(d) 1, 2, 3 and 4

Answer: A

Explanation: 

• What is the Real Sector? Domestic economy may be divided into three larger sectors: 
  • General Government Sector: Influences the quantity of money in the economy through its operations.
  • Real Sector: It is the economy’s money holding sector.
  • Financial Sector: It is the economy’s money issuing sector
• The real sector of an economy is the key section as activities of this sector persuade economic output and is represented by those economic segments that are essential for the progress of GDP of the economy.
  Option (a) is correct:  Real Sector refers to real economic transactions of an economy.
• Main players:
  • Households
  • Non-financial corporations
  • Financial corporations
  • General government
  • Rest of the world

Economy > Basics of Economics 

Difficulty – Easy

Analysis – Conceptual

Question Type – Static

Q8. Which one of the following situations best reflects “Indirect Transfers” often talked about in media recently with reference to India ?

1. An Indian company investing in a foreign enterprise and paying taxes to the foreign country on the profits arising out of its investment
2. A foreign company investing in India and paying taxes to the country of its base on the profits arising out of its investment
3. An Indian company purchases tangible assets in a foreign country and sells such assets after their value increases and transfers the proceeds to India
4. A foreign company transfers shares and such shares derive their substantial value from assets located in India

Answer: 4

Explanation: 

• Option (d) is correct: Indirect transfers refer to situations where when foreign entities own shares or assets in India, the shares of such foreign entities are transferred instead of a direct transfer of the underlying assets in India. 
• The term has its origins in the Income Tax Amendment Act 2012. This act introduced the concept of ‘retrospective taxation’ in the wake of a deal by Vodafone Ltd. in 2007. As per the new amendment, Indirect Transfers were taxed. The amendments made by the 2012 Act clarified that if a company is registered or incorporated outside India, its shares will be deemed to be or have always been situated in India if they derive their value substantially from the assets located in India. As a result, the persons who sold such shares of foreign companies before the enactment of the Act (i.e., May 28, 2012) also became liable to pay tax on the income earned from such sale. 
• This policy of retrospective taxation dissuaded investors from investing in India. However, this provision was retracted in 2021, hence the ‘retrospective taxation’ was nullified.

Economy > Public Finance and Fiscal Policy

Difficulty – Medium

Analysis – Conceptual/Analytical

Question Type – Current Affairs/Static

Q9. With reference to the expenditure made by an organisation or a company, which of the following statements is/are correct?

1. Acquiring new technology is capital expenditure.
2. Debt financing is considered capital expenditure, while equity financing is considered revenue expenditure.

Select the correct answer using the code given below :

(a) 1 only

(b) 2 only

(c) Both 1 and 2

(d) Neither 1 nor 2

Answer: A

Explanation: 

• Capital Expenditures (CapEx) are expenses used by a company to acquire, upgrade, and maintain physical assets such as property, plants, buildings, technology, or equipment. For example, Costs to upgrade or purchase software, investing in new technology and computer equipment, are considered part of Capital Expenditure.
• Revenue Expenditures include the expenses required to meet the ongoing operational costs of running a business, and thus are essentially the same as Operating Expenses (OPEX). It can be defined as the summation of all expenses incurred by a business through the course of production of its goods and services.
• Statement 1 is correct: Costs to upgrade or purchase software, investing in new technology and computer equipment, are considered part of Capital expenditure.
• Statement 2 is incorrect:  Both Debt Financing and Equity Financing are considered as part of capital receipts for the company, as capital receipts are receipts that create liabilities or reduce financial assets. Funds from these would be used by the company for capital expenditure such as to grow or expand its operations.

Economy > Budget

Difficulty – Easy

Analysis – Conceptual 

Question Type – Static

Q10. With reference to the Indian economy, consider the following statements :

1. A share of the household financial savings goes towards government borrowings.
2. Dated securities issued at market-related rates in auctions form a large component of internal debt.

Which of the above statements is/are correct ?

(a)  1 only

(b) 2 only

(c) Both 1 and 2

(d) Neither 1 nor 2

Answer: C

Explanation: 

• Household Financial Savings refer to currency, bank deposits, debt securities, mutual funds, pension funds, insurance, and investments in small savings schemes by households. 
• Public Debt is classified into internal and external debt. Internal debt consists of marketable debt and non-marketable debt. Marketable debt comprises Government dated securities and Treasury Bills, issued through auctions.
• Statement 1 is correct: The net household financial savings was 11.5 percent of GNDI (gross national disposable income) in 202021. A part of this financial saving goes toward government borrowing. The government borrows from the market through various measures.
• Statement 2 is correct: As at end-March 2021, outstanding amounts under dated securities stood at 71.7 lakh crore (36.3 percent of GDP) and accounted for 68.1 per cent of the total Public Debt.

Economy > Public Finance and Fiscal Policy

Difficulty – Easy

Analysis – Factual

Question Type – Current Affairs

Q11. Consider the following statements :

1. Pursuant to the report of H.N. Sanyal Committee, the Contempt of Courts Act, 1971 was passed.
2. The Constitution of India empowers the Supreme Court and the High Courts to punish for contempt of themselves.
3. The Constitution of India defines Civil Contempt and Criminal Contempt.
4. In India, the Parliament is vested with the powers to make laws on Contempt of Court.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct ?

(a) 1 and 2 only

(b) 1, 2 and 4

(c) 3 and 4 only

(d) 3 only

Answer: B

Explanation: 

• Statement 1 is correct: A committee under the chairmanship of H. N. Sanyal (Additional Solicitor General) was constituted in 1961. The recommendations, which the committee made, took note of the importance given to freedom of speech in the Constitution and of the need for safeguarding the status and dignity of courts and interests of administration of justice. Pursuant of Sanyal Committee Report, the Contempt of Courts Act was passed in 1971.
• Statement 2 is correct: Article 129 of the Constitution gives the Supreme Court the power to initiate contempt cases on its own, independent of the motion brought before it by the Attorney General (AG) or with the consent of the AG. 
• Statement 3 is incorrect:  The expression ‘contempt of court’ has not been defined by the Constitution.
• Statement 4 is correct: The Contempt of Court Act, 1971 defines both civil and criminal contempt. Hence the Parliament is vested with the powers to make laws regarding contempt of court. 

Indian Indian Polity> Judiciary

Difficulty – Easy

Analysis – Conceptual

Question Type – Static

Q12. With reference to India, consider the following statements :

1. Government law officers and legal firms are recognised as advocates, but corporate lawyers and patent attorneys are excluded from recognition as advocates.
2. Bar Councils have the power to lay down the rules relating to legal education and recognition of law colleges.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

(a) 1 only

(b) 2 only

(c) Both 1 and 2

(d) Neither 1 nor 2

 Answer: B

Explanation: 

• Advocate means a lawyer whose name has been entered in the State roll prepared and maintained by a state bar council under Section 17 of the Advocates Local Act., 1961 (25 of 1961) and who is a member of a State Bar Association or State Advocates Association. Whereas a Lawyer is any person who has completed the Degree of Law (whether 3 years LLB or 5 years Law course)
• Statement 1 is Incorrect: 
• Government Law Officers are selected from among the advocates on roll by either state or central government.
  • Legal firm is a group of association of Advocate and not an entity to be recognised as an Advocate.
  • An advocate cannot be a full-time salaried employee of any government, person, firm, corporation or concern, during the reign of his practice. Hence, any person be it company lawyer or patent Attorney on pay-roll, will not be recognised as an Advocate.
• Statement 2 is Correct: Bar Council of India visits and inspects Universities/Law colleges in the country as part of its statutory function of promoting legal education and laying down standards in consultation with the Universities in India and the State Bar Councils.

Indian Polity > Judiciary

Difficulty – Hard

Analysis – Conceptual

Question Type – Static

Q13. Consider the following statements :

1. A bill amending the Constitution requires a prior recommendation of the President of India.
2. When a Constitution Amendment Bill is presented to the President of India, it is obligatory for the President of India to give his/her assent.
3. A Constitution Amendment Bill must be passed by both the Lok Sabha and the Rajya Sabha by a special majority and there is no provision for joint sitting.

Which of the statements given above are correct?

(a) 1 and 2 only

(b) 2 and 3 only

(c) 1 and 3 only

(d) 1, 2 and 3

Answer: B

Explanation: 

• An amendment of the Constitution can be initiated only by the introduction of a bill for the purpose in either House of Parliament and not in the state legislatures. 
• Statement 1 is incorrect: The bill can be introduced either by a minister or by a private member and does not require prior permission of the president.  The bill must be passed in each House by a special majority, that is, a majority (that is, more than 50 per cent) of the total membership of the House and a majority of two-thirds of the members of the House present and voting. 
• Statement 2 is correct: After the 24th Constitutional Amendment 1967, the President does not have the power to withhold his assent to the bill or return it for reconsideration of the Parliament, if the bill seeks to amend the Constitution.
• Statement 3 is correct: Constitution Amendment Bill must be passed in each house by a special majority, that is, a majority of the total membership of the house and a majority of two-thirds of the members of the house present and voting. Each house must pass the bill separately. If there is any disagreement, there is no provision for joint sitting of the houses.

Indian Polity > Legislature

Difficulty – Easy

Analysis – Conceptual

Question Type – Static

Q14. Consider the following statements :

1. The Constitution of India classifies the ministers into four ranks viz. Cabinet Minister, Minister of State with Independent Charge, Minister of State and Deputy Minister.
2. The total number of ministers in the Union Government, including the Prime Minister, shall not exceed 15 percent of the total number of members in the Lok Sabha.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

(a) 1 only

(b) 2 only

(c) Both 1 and 2

(d) Neither 1 nor 2

Answer: B

Explanation: 

• Article 74 of the Constitution deals with the status of the council of ministers while Article 75 deals with the appointment, tenure, responsibility, qualification, oath and salaries and allowances of the ministers.
• Statement 1 is incorrect: The Constitution does not classify the members of the Council of Ministers into different ranks. It has been done informally on the British pattern through executive order in India. 
• Statement 2 is correct: But as per the 91st Constitutional Amendment Act, 2003, Strength Of Council Of Ministers should not exceed 15% of the total strength of the Lok Sabha.

Indian Polity > Legislature

Difficulty – Easy

Analysis – Conceptual

Question Type – Static

Q15. Which of the following is/are the exclusive power(s) of Lok Sabha ?

1. To ratify the declaration of Emergency
2. To pass a motion of no-confidence against the Council of Ministers
3. To impeach the President of India

Select the correct answer using the code given below :

(a) 1 and 2

(b) 2 only

(c) 1 and 3

(d) 3 only

Answer: B

Explanation:

• Statement 1 is incorrect: Under Article 352 (4), it is the responsibility of the Parliament, not just Lok Sabha, to ratify proclamation of Emergency. 
• Statement 2 is correct: The Union Council of Ministers is collectively responsible before the Lok Sabha. The Lok Sabha can cause the fall of the government by passing no confidence motion against the sitting government. 
• Statement 3 is incorrect: Under Article 61, process to remove the President, impeachment can be initiated by either house of the Parliament. Both houses are given equal powers in this regard. 

Indian Polity > Legislature

Difficulty – Easy

Analysis – Conceptual

Question Type – Static

Q16. With reference to anti-defection law in India, consider the following statements:

1. The law specifies that a nominated legislator cannot join any political party within six months of being appointed to the House.
2. The law does not provide any time-frame within which the presiding officer has to decide a defection case.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

(a) 1 only

(b) 2 only

(c) Both 1 and 2

(d) Neither 1 nor 2

Answer: B

Explanation: 

• Statement 1 is incorrect: As per the Anti-Defection Law a nominated member of a House becomes disqualified for being a member of the House if he joins any political party after the expiry of six months from the date on which he takes his seat in the House. This means a nominated member can join a political party within six months after being appointed in the house. 
• Statement 2 is correct: : The Anti Defection Law does not specify a time period for the Presiding Officer to decide on a disqualification plea. Hence, there is no specific time limit.

Indian Polity > Miscellaneous

Difficulty – Easy

Analysis – Factual and Conceptual

Question Type – Static

Q17. Consider the following statements:

1. Attorney General of India and Solicitor General of India are the only officers of the Government who are allowed to participate in the meetings of the Parliament of India.
2. According to the Constitution of India, the Attorney General of India submits his resignation when the Government which appointed him resigns.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

(a) 1 only

(b) 2 only

(c) Both 1 and 2

(d) Neither 1 nor 2

Answer: D

Explanation: 

• Statement 1 is incorrect: As per Article 76 of the Constitution only the Attorney General has the right to participate in the Parliamentary proceedings. This right is not extended to the Solicitor General of India.
• Statement 2 is incorrect: Attorney General is not appointed by the Government. Instead, he is appointed by the President in consultation with the Government. However, traditionally, the Attorney General resigns from the office once the government resigns, as he is appointed on its advice. 

Indian Polity > Executive

Difficulty – Easy

Analysis – Factual and Conceptual

Question Type – Static

Q18. With reference to the writs issued by the Courts in India, consider the following statements:

1. Mandamus will not lie against a private organisation unless it is entrusted with a public duty.
2. Mandamus will not lie against a Company even though it may be a Government Company.
3. Any public minded person can be a petitioner to move the Court to obtain the writ of Quo Warranto.

Which of the statements given above are correct?

(a) 1 and 2 only

(b) 2 and 3 only

(c) 1 and 3 only

(d) 1, 2 and 3

 Answer: D

Explanation: 

• Mandamus (‘We command’) is one of five writs which are issued by courts in India (Supreme Court and High Courts). It is a command issued by the court to a public office/official asking him to perform his official duties that he has failed to refuse to perform. 
• Quo Warranto (litt. ‘By what authority of warrant) is also one of five writs that are issued by courts in India. It is issued to enquire into the legality of the claim of a person to a public office (usually a constitutional or statutory office). This writ prevents illegal usurpation of public office by a person.
• Statement 1 is correct:  The writ of Mandamus cannot be issued: 
  • against a private individual or body.  
  • to enforce departmental instruction that does not possess statutory force. 
  • when the duty is discretionary and not mandatory to enforce a contractual obligation. 
  • against the president of India or the state governors. 
  • against the chief justice of a high court acting in a judicial capacity.
• Statement 2 is correct:  As per UPSC official answer key this statement is correct.
• In India mandamus goes to all government departments and also local authorities like municipalities.”
• But on the following bodies: The law is in a state of confusion.
  •       Universities and other statutory bodies
  •       Incorporated bodies like cooperative societies and joint stock companies.
  •       Government companies.
  •       Other private bodies on whom duties are imposed by statute.
• The High Courts have taken diametrically opposing views. For instance, a few High Courts on the one hand have thought that the writ could go even to a government company. but a few others have held on the other hand that the writ may not be issued to a statutory corporation like the Life Insurance Corporation. The position in relation to the above bodies is examined seriatim.
• Statement 3 is correct: The writ of Quo Warranto can only be issued in case of a substantive public office of a permanent character, that is created by a statute or by the Constitution. It cannot be issued in cases of ministerial office or private office. Any interested person and not necessarily the aggrieved person can seek Quo Warranto writ.

Indian Polity > Judiciary

Difficulty – Medium

Analysis – Factual and Conceptual

Question Type – Static

Q19. With reference to Ayushman Bharat Digital Mission, consider the following statements:

1. Private and public hospitals must adopt it.
2. As it aims to achieve universal health coverage, every citizen of India should be part of it ultimately.
3. It has seamless portability across the country.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

(a) 1 and 2 only

(b) 3 only

(c) 1 and 3 only

(d) 1, 2 and 3

Answer: B

Explanation: 

• Statement 1 is incorrect: Participation of healthcare institutions in Ayushman Bharat Digital Mission (ABDM) is voluntary. However, once a healthcare facility has registered with ABDM, every healthcare professional employed by that facility or institution must register himself/herself with Healthcare Professionals Registry so that the institution can become fully integrated with the National Digital Health Ecosystem (NDHE).
• Statement 2 is incorrect: Universal Health Coverage is the mission of Ayushman Bharat Mission. However, the ABDM aims to create a seamless online platform that will enable interoperability within the digital healthcare ecosystem.
  • The mission has been conceptualised as a set of ‘digital building blocks’.
  • Each building block is seen as a ‘digital public good’ that can be used by any entity in the digital health ecosystem and provides key capabilities that enable the ABDM vision.
• Statement 3 is correct: Creating seamless portability across various online platforms is one of the objectives of ABDM. 

Economy > Human Economy

Difficulty – Easy

Analysis – Factual

Question Type – Current Affair

Q20. With reference to Deputy Speaker of Lok Sabha, consider the following statements :

1. As per the Rules of Procedure and Conduct of Business in Lok Sabha, the election of Deputy Speaker shall be held on such date as the Speaker may fix.
2. There is a mandatory provision that the election of a candidate as Deputy Speaker of Lok Sabha shall be from either the principal opposition party or the ruling party.
3. The Deputy Speaker has the same power as of the Speaker when presiding over the sitting of the House and no appeal lies against his rulings.
4. The well established parliamentary practice regarding the appointment of Deputy Speaker is that the motion is moved by the Speaker and duly seconded by the Prime Minister.

Which of the statements given above are correct?

(a) 1 and 3 only

(b) 1, 2 and 3

(c) 3 and 4 only

(d) 2 and 4 only

Answer: A

Explanation: 

• Article 93 provides for the election of both the Speaker and the Deputy Speaker. The offices are regulated by constitutional provisions, Parliamentary Traditions and Conventions and Rules of Procedure and Conduct of Business Rules.
• Statement 1 is correct: The Deputy Speaker is elected by the Lok Sabha from amongst its members right after the election of the Speaker has taken place.
• The date of election of the Deputy Speaker is fixed by the Speaker (date of election of the Speaker is fixed by the President).
• Statement 2 is incorrect: Deputy Speaker being from the principal opposition party, is a parliamentary convention and not mandatory. There is no written rule for such an arrangement. 
• Statement 3 is correct: Deputy Speaker acts as the presiding officer in case of leave or in absence caused by death or illness of the Speaker of the Lok Sabha. While performing his duties as the Speaker, the Deputy Speaker enjoys the same powers and privileges as the Speaker of Lok Sabha. 
• Statement 4 is incorrect: There is no such practice of needing the Prime Minister as a seconder while moving motion for Deputy Speaker.

Indian Polity > Legislature

Difficulty – Easy

Analysis – Factual

Question Type – Static

Importance of Solving Previous Years’ Question Paper

• Candidates will better comprehend the present test format by resolving prelim question papers from prior years.
• Examining the topics that matter more in terms of the exam is beneficial.
• Candidates can assess the level of difficulty of the UPSC Exam paper, and it helps to keep track of changes to the format of the Prelims examination.
• The ability to analyze oneself, concentrate on one’s areas of weakness, and develop a strategy that works for one’s needs is the best benefit of solving IAS problems from the previous year.

Sharing is caring!