The Hindu Newspaper Analysis 3 February 2023

The Hindu Newspaper Analysis for UPSC

The Hindu Newspaper Analysis 2 February 2023

• The Supreme Court on Thursday refused to set aside a provision in the election law that allows candidates to contest polls from two constituencies simultaneously.
• “This is a policy matter and an issue concerning political democracy. It is for the Parliament to take a call,” a Bench led by CJI D.Y. Chandrachud observed.
• “Like one person, one vote, one candidate, one constituency is the dictum of democracy… Section 33(7) of the Act allows a person to contest a general election or a group of by-elections or biennial elections from two constituencies,” the petitioner said.
• However, the court chose to leave the issue to the wisdom of Parliament.
• “This is a matter of legislative policy, since ultimately it is Parliament’s will to see if a country can be granted such a choice. Hence, absent any manifest arbitrariness in the said provision, we cannot strike it down,” the top court noted.
• As per Section 33(7) of the RPA (Representation of the People Act), 1951, one candidate can contest from a maximum of two constituencies.
• More constituencies were allowed until 1996 when the RPA was amended to set the cap at two constituencies.
• Since 1951, many politicians have used this factor to contest from more than one seat – sometimes to divide the opponent’s vote, sometimes to profess their party’s power across the country, sometimes to cause a ripple effect in the region surrounding the constituencies in favour of the candidate’s party and all parties have exploited Section 33(7).

The Hindu Editorial Today

Q) Consider the following statements: (2020)

1. According to the Constitution of India, a person who is eligible to vote can be made a minister in a State for six months even if he/she is not a member of the Legislature of that State.
2. According to the Representation of People Act, 1951, a person convicted of a criminal offence and sentenced to imprisonment for five years is permanently disqualified from contesting an election even after his release from prison.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

1. 1 only
2. 2 only
3. Both 1 and 2
4. Neither 1 nor 2

• According to Article 164 of the Constitution, a minister who is not a member of the state legislature for any period of six consecutive months shall cease to be a minister. The provision allows a non-legislator to occupy a post in the council of ministers, including the office of the chief minister for six months. Within six months, he must become a member (either by election or by nomination) of either House of the state legislature, otherwise, he ceases to be minister.
• As to become a member of the state legislature one must be not less than 30 years of age in the case of the legislative council and not less than 25 years of age in the case of the legislative assembly. Hence, statement 1 is not correct.
• According to the Section 8(3) of the Representation of People Act, 1951, a person convicted of any offence and sentenced to imprisonment for not less than two years shall be disqualified for contesting an election (MLA or MP) from the date of such conviction and shall continue to be disqualified for a further period of six years since his release. Hence, statement 2 is not correct. Therefore, option (d) is the correct answer.

• South Asia should now have a re-look at regional trade across Asia after the warning by the International Monetary Fund (IMF) on January 31, 2023, that global trade would slow down from 5.4% in 2022 to 2.4% in 2023.
• A recently published paper in an IMF book, “South Asia’s Path to Resilient Growth”, argues that a strong base exists for South Asia trading more with dynamic East Asia: since the 1990s, South Asia-East Asia trade has gathered pace, which is linked to India’s trade re-aligning towards East Asia through its ‘Look East’ and ‘Act East’ policies, South Asia adopting reforms, and also China offshoring global supply chains to Asia.
• First, regional trade integration across Asia can be encouraged by gradually reducing barriers to goods and services trade.
• Second, improve the performance of special economic zones (SEZs) and invest in services SEZs to facilitate industrial clustering and exports. South Asia has over 600 SEZs in operation, in Kochi (India), Gwadar (Pakistan), Mirsarai (Bangladesh) and Hambantota (Sri Lanka).
• Third, pursue comprehensive FTAs that eventually lead to the Regional Comprehensive Economic Partnership (RCEP) to provide for a regional rules-based trade to insure against rising protectionism.

• The Ministry of Science & Technology has received an allocation of ₹16,361.42 crore this year, on paper an impressive 15% increase from the previous estimate. However, between 2021-22 and 2022-23, the Ministry had seen a 3.9% decrease.
• There were multiple references in the Budget speech for investing in dedicated centres for excellence in ‘Artificial intelligence’ research, initiatives to scale up technology to produce laboratory-made diamonds and a centre for research in sickle cell anaemia.
• While funds are not the only challenge to research and development in India, the lack of significant raises across departments shows that the absorptive capacity of scientific institutions in the country is limited.
• A major challenge continues to be research scholars not getting promised funds on time and the wait for the quality equipment required by researchers, continuing to be mired in a maze of bureaucratic whimsy. The bulk of research continues to be funded by government and the participation of the private sector has grown only incrementally.

• Picturesque Ladakh has been on edge ever since it was carved out as a Union Territory (UT) from the erstwhile State of Jammu and Kashmir in 2019.
• An agitation demanding the inclusion of the region in the Sixth Schedule under Article 244 of the Constitution (special protection to tribal populations) boiled over last week after Sonam Wangchuk, a Magsaysay winner, went on a fast.
• In September 2019, the National Commission for Scheduled Tribes recommended the inclusion of Ladakh under the Sixth Schedule, noting that the new UT was predominantly tribal (more than 97%) and its distinct cultural heritage needed preservation.
• Article 244: The Sixth Schedule under Article 244 provides for the formation of autonomous administrative divisions — Autonomous District Councils (ADCs) — that have some legislative, judicial, and administrative autonomy within a state.
• The Sixth Schedule contains special provisions for the administration of tribal areas in the four north-eastern states of Assam, Meghalaya, Tripura and Mizoram.

• One-horned rhinos graze at the Pobitora wildlife sanctuary in Assam.
• Pobitora has the world’s highest concentration of Indian one-horned rhinos: 107 in just 38.81 sq km.
• Rhinos are finding it difficult to find fresh grasslands as there has been no rainfall in the State for the last five months.
• Water bodies, too, have dried up.
• There are five species of rhino – white and black rhinos in Africa, and the greater one-horned, Javan and Sumatran rhino species in Asia.
• Black Rhino: Critically endangered. Smaller of the two African species.
• White Rhino: Near Threatened. Researchers have created an embryo of the northern white rhino by using In Vitro Fertilization (IVF) process.
• One-Horned Rhino: Vulnerable
• Javan: Critically Endangered
• Sumatran Rhino: Critically Endangered. It has gone extinct in Malaysia.
• Only the Great One-Horned Rhino is found in India.
• Also known as Indian rhino, it is the largest of the rhino species.
• he species is restricted to small habitats in Indo-Nepal terai and northern West Bengal and Assam.
• In India, rhinos are mainly found in Assam, West Bengal and Uttar Pradesh.
• Assam has an estimated 2,640 rhinos in four protected areas, i.e. Pabitora Wildlife Reserve, Rajiv Gandhi Orang National Park, Kaziranga National Park, and Manas National Park.

• No decision has been taken on implementing a uniform civil code in the country “as of now”, Union Law Minister Kiren Rijiju told the Rajya Sabha on Thursday.
• In a written reply to a question by Mizo National Front member K. Vanlalvena, the Law Minister said the government had requested the 21st Law Commission to undertake examination of various issues relating to uniform civil code and to make recommendations.
• However, the term of the 21st Law Commission ended on August 31, 2018 and as per information received from the Law Commission, the Minister noted, the the 22nd Law Commission may take up matter related to uniform civil code.
• UCC is envisaged to provide for one law for the entire country, applicable to all religious communities in their personal matters such as marriage, divorce, inheritance, adoption etc.
• Article 44 of the Constitution lays down that the state shall endeavour to secure a UCC for the citizens throughout the territory of India.
• Article 44 is one of the Directive Principles of State Policy (DPSP).
• The purpose behind Article 44 is to strengthen the object of “secular democratic republic” as enshrined in the Preamble of the Constitution.
• The Law Commission of India is a non-statutory body constituted by the Government of India from time to time.
• The first Law Commission of independent India was established in 1955 for a three-year term.
• The first Law Commission was established during the British Raj era in 1834 by the Charter Act of 1833 and was chaired by Lord Macaulay.

Composition:

• Apart from having a full-time chairperson, the commission will have four full-time members, including a member-secretary.
• Law and Legislative Secretaries in the Law Ministry will be the ex-officio members of the commission.
• It will also have not more than five part-time members.
• A retired Supreme Court judge or Chief Justice of a High Court will head the Commission.

• The CITES trade database has recorded 28 incidents of red sanders confiscation, seizure and specimens from the wild being exported from India, a fact sheet prepared by TRAFFIC, a global wildlife trade monitoring organisation has revealed.
• CITES (Convention on International Trade in Endangered Species of Wild Fauna and Flora) is an international agreement between governments, whose aim is to ensure that international trade in wild animals and plants does not threaten the survival of the species.
• Red Sanders (Pterocarpus santalinus), or red sandalwood, is an endemic tree species with distribution restricted to the Eastern Ghats of India.
• The species found in Andhra Pradesh and growing up to a height of 10 to 15 metres is reported to be one of India’s most exploited tree species, and is under severe pressure from illegal logging and harvesting.
• Under the foreign trade policy of India, the import of Red Sanders is prohibited, while export is restricted.
• China remains the largest importer with more than 13,618 tonnes of the products, followed by Hong Kong (5,215 tonnes) and Singapore (216 tonnes).
• Listed under Schedule IV of the Wildlife Protection Act and categorised as endangered as per the IUCN Red List, red sanders is a very slow-growing tree species that attains maturity in natural forests after 25-40 years.
• The TRAFFIC, the Wildlife Trade Monitoring Network, is a leading non-governmental organisation working on wildlife trade in the context of both biodiversity conservation and sustainable development.
• It is a joint program of World Wildlife Fund (WWF) and the International Union for Conservation of Nature (IUCN).
• It aims to ensure that trade in wild plants and animals is not a threat to the conservation of nature.
• It was established in 1976 and has developed into a global network, research-driven and action-oriented, committed to delivering innovative and practical conservation solutions.
• Headquarters: Cambridge, United Kingdom
• Illegal wildlife trade is one of the main reasons that many species are endangered.
• The Convention on International Trade in Endangered Species of Wild Fauna and Flora (CITES) is an international agreement to which States and regional economic integration organizations adhere voluntarily.
• CITES entered into force in July 1975.
• Aim: Ensure that international trade in specimens of wild animals and plants does not threaten their survival.
• The CITES Secretariat is administered by UNEP (The United Nations Environment Programme) and is located at Geneva, Switzerland.

Q) With reference to the Union Budget 2023-24, considers the following statements:

1. The PM PRANAM scheme incentivises states to promote the balanced use of chemical fertilizers.
2. Indian Institute of Millet Research Hyderabad will be made the Centre of Excellence for millet.

Which of the above statements is/are Incorrect?

1. 1 only
2. 2 only
3. Both 1 and 2
4. Neither 1 nor 2

केंद्रीय बजट 2023-24 के संदर्भ में निम्नलिखित कथनों पर विचार करते हैं:

1. पीएम प्रणाम योजना राज्यों को रासायनिक उर्वरकों के संतुलित उपयोग को बढ़ावा देने के लिए प्रोत्साहित करती है।
2. भारतीय बाजरा अनुसंधान संस्थान हैदराबाद को बाजरा के लिए उत्कृष्टता केंद्र बनाया जाएगा।

उपरोक्त में से कौन सा/से कथन गलत है/हैं?

1. केवल 1
2. केवल 2
3. 1 और 2 दोनों
4. न तो 1 और न ही 2

Explanation :

During the Budget speech Union finance minister announced multiple schemes towards Agriculture and Farmers’ Welfare.

• PM PRANAM (Prime Minister Programme for Restoration, Awareness, Nourishment and Amelioration of Mother Earth)
• This programme will seek to incentivise states and union territories to promote alternative fertilisers and the balanced use of chemical fertilisers.
• Centre of excellence for millets
• Indian Institute of Millet Research, Hyderabad will be made into a Centre for Excellence and it will be supported for sharing best practices, research and technologies at the international level.

Q) Consider the following statements regarding Ekalavya Model Residential Schools (EMRS):

1. EMRS are co-educational residential schools from Class I to XII.
2. Non-Scheduled Tribe (ST) students can be admitted in these schools on seats up to 10% of the total seats.

Which of the above statements is/are correct?

1. 1 only
2. 2 only
3. Both 1 and 2
4. Neither 1 nor 2

एकलव्य मॉडल आवासीय विद्यालय (EMRS) के संबंध में निम्नलिखित कथनों पर विचार करें:

1. EMRS कक्षा I से XII तक के सह-शैक्षिक आवासीय विद्यालय हैं।
2. इन विद्यालयों में कुल सीटों की 10% सीटों पर गैर अनुसूचित जनजाति (एसटी) के छात्रों को प्रवेश दिया जा सकता है।

उपरोक्त कथनों में से कौन-सा/से सही है/हैं?

1. केवल 1
2. केवल 2
3. 1 और 2 दोनों
4. न तो 1 और न ही 2

About Ekalavya Model Residential Schools (EMRS)

• EMRS started in the year 1997-98 to impart quality education to ST children in remote areas to enable them to access the best opportunities in education and to bring them at par with the general population.
• EMRS are established in the States/UTs from the grants received under Article 275(1) of the Constitution of India.
• Features:
• EMRS are co-educational residential schools from Class VI to XII.
• Eklavya schools will be on par with Navodaya Vidyalayas and will have special facilities for preserving local art and culture besides providing training in sports and skill development.
• Each school has a capacity of 480 students with equal number of seats for boys and girls.
• Non-ST students can be admitted in these schools on seats up to 10% of the total seats.
• CBSE curriculum is followed in these schools, and education is completely free.
• The National Education Society for Tribal Students (NESTS), an autonomous organization has been set up under the Ministry of Tribal Affairs to establish and manage EMRS across the country.
• Government Target: As per the Budget 2018-19, every block with more than 50% ST population and at least 20,000 tribal population will have an EMRS by the year 2022.

Q) With reference to the MISHTI initiative, consider the following statements:

1. It will facilitate mangrove plantations along India’s coastline.
2. It will operate through convergence between Campa Fund and other sources.

Which of the above statements is/are correct?

1. 1 only
2. 2 only
3. Both 1 and 2
4. Neither 1 nor 2

मिष्टी पहल के संदर्भ में निम्नलिखित कथनों पर विचार कीजिये:

1. यह भारत के समुद्र तट के साथ मैंग्रोव वृक्षारोपण की सुविधा प्रदान करेगा।
2. यह कैम्पा फंड और अन्य स्रोतों के बीच अभिसरण के माध्यम से संचालित होगा।

उपरोक्त कथनों में से कौन-सा/से सही है/हैं?

1. केवल 1
2. केवल 2
3. 1 और 2 दोनों
4. न तो 1 और न ही 2

Explanation :

During the Budget speech Union finance minister announced multiple schemes towards the protection and conservation of India’s natural heritage, including mangroves and wetlands.

MISHTI (Mangrove Initiative for Shoreline Habitats & Tangible Incomes)

• It is a new programme that will facilitate mangrove plantations along India’s coastline and on saltpan lands.
• The programme will operate through “convergence between MGNREGS, Campa Fund and other sources.”
• This new programme will aim at the intensive afforestation of coastal mangrove forests.

Q) Consider the following statements regarding Sickle cell anemia:

1. It is a communicable disease caused by a virus.
2. People with this disease have atypical hemoglobin which can slow or block blood flow.

Which of the above statements is/are correct?

1. 1 only
2. 2 only
3. Both 1 and 2
4. Neither 1 nor 2

सिकल सेल एनीमिया के संबंध में निम्नलिखित कथनों पर विचार करें:

1. यह विषाणु से होने वाला संचारी रोग है।
2. इस बीमारी वाले लोगों में एटिपिकल हीमोग्लोबिन होता है जो रक्त के प्रवाह को धीमा या अवरुद्ध कर सकता है।

उपरोक्त कथनों में से कौन-सा/से सही है/हैं?

1. केवल 1
2. केवल 2
3. 1 और 2 दोनों
4. न तो 1 और न ही 2

Explanation :

Finance minister recently announced the Central Government’s plan to launch a mission to eliminate sickle cell anemia by 2047.

About Sickle cell anemia:

• It is an inherited blood disorder.
• It affects hemoglobin, the molecule in red blood cells that delivers oxygen to cells throughout the body.
• People with this disease have atypical hemoglobin molecules called hemoglobin S, which can distort red blood cells into a sickle, or crescent, shape.
• These sickle cells also become rigid and sticky, which can slow or block blood flow.

What causes it?

• The cause of Sickle cell disease is a defective gene, called a sickle cell gene.
• A person will be born with sickle cell disease only if two genes are inherited—one from the mother and one from the father.
• Treatments:
• The only cure for this disease is bone marrow or stem cell transplantation.
• However, there are treatments that can help relieve symptoms, lessen complications, and prolong life.

Mains Practice Question:

Q) What is the importance of growing millets for India. Discuss. (150 words)

भारत के लिए बाजरा उगाने का क्या महत्व है? चर्चा करना। (150 शब्द)

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