The Hindu Newspaper Analysis for UPSC
The Hindu Newspaper Analysis 11 April 2023
- India’s retail inflation slid below the 6% mark for the first time in 2023 — and only the third time in the last 15 months — to touch 5.66% in March 2023. The drop was aided by base effects, as the same month had recorded an almost 7% price rise last year.
- March’s inflation level was last seen in December 2021, following which prices rose at a pace faster than the Central bank’s upper tolerance threshold of 6% for 10 months in a row.
- Despite the moderation in the last month of the fiscal year, Indian consumers faced an average inflation of 6.66% through 2022-23.
- The former Deputy Governor of the Reserve Bank of India, Viral Acharya, is reported to have observed (on an Indian news and opinion website on March 30) that, unlike in the West where it abated with COVID-19, core inflation remains elevated in India.
- ‘core’ inflation is all-commodity inflation stripped of the inflation of food and fuel prices.
- India’s inflation control strategy is currently restricted to using the interest rate to dampen aggregate demand. It — conveniently for its champions — absolves the policymaker from addressing the challenge of ensuring the production of food at affordable prices.
- At the Delhi Arbitration Weekend in February 2023, Union Law Minister Kiren Rijiju emphasised the need for institutional arbitration to enhance the ease of doing business.
- India has shown tremendous improvement in the World Bank’s Ease of Doing Business report, rising from the 142nd rank among 190 countries in 2014 to 63rd in 2019.
- However, India is ranked 163rd, in ‘Enforcing Contracts’, which is a marginal improvement from the 186th rank in 2015 and 173rd in 2006.
- The report says it takes almost four years and 31% of the cost of the claim to enforce a contract in India; in contrast, it takes just over two years and costs 22% of the claim value in Brazil. In Mexico it is 341 days and 33% of claim value, and Vietnam 400 days, and 29% of claim value.
- Three key measures can be considered. One, incentivise use of ODR by way of legislative measures such as setting ODR as a default dispute resolution tool for categories of disputes arising out of online transactions, fast-tracking enforcement of ODR outcomes, and exempting or reducing stamp duty and court fees.
- Two, solve infrastructural challenges, curb the digital divide, and catalyse ODR’s growth by optimising existing setups such as Aadhaar kendras to also function as ODR kiosks. Each court can have an ODR cell along with supplemental technical and administrative support. On the lines of the Finance Minister allocating ₹7,000 crore for the third phase of the e-Courts project in the Union Budget 2023 (aimed at digitising the justice system), a dedicated fund must be set up for furthering ODR.
- Three, government departments should explore ODR as a grievance redress mechanism. Proactive use of ODR by government entities will not only increase trust in the process but also ensure that citizens have access to a convenient and cost-effective means of resolving disputes with the government.
- Tamil Nadu Governor R.N. Ravi’s assent, on April 7, to the Bill prohibiting online gambling and regulating online games in the State, has brought closure to a controversial issue.
- Union Minister of Information and Broadcasting Anurag Thakur had, referring to the presence of “betting and gambling” in the State List (Entry 34), clarified in Parliament that online gambling too came under the jurisdiction of States.
- Addiction to online gaming has resulted in financial distress in many a family and also caused serious health issues.
- Even while seeking to implement the law banning online gambling and online games of chance (rummy and poker), the proposed Tamil Nadu Online Gaming Authority should ensure a balance: no restrictions on online games permitted under the Act as well as monitoring of online game providers.
- In an ever-evolving digital world, it would be in the interests of all to create an environment for healthy online games.
About Exercise Cope India:
- It is a bilateral joint exercise between Indian Air Force (IAF) and the United States Air Force (USAF).
- Cope India began in 2004 as a fighter training exercise.
- The exercise has evolved to incorporate subject matter expert exchanges, air mobility training, airdrop training and large-force exercises, in addition to fighter-training exercises.
- The exercise will further enhance operational capability and interoperability between the two air forces..
- The last edition of the exercise was held in 2019.
- India’s industrial output grew 5.6% this February, marginally higher than the 5.45% in January, with manufacturing output picking up pace to rise 5.3% even as electricity generation grew less than 10% for the first time in four months at 8.7%.
- Sequentially, however, the Index of Industrial Production or IIP was 5.6% below January levels.
- Consumer durables production contracted for the third month in a row, to drop 4% in February while intermediate goods shrank 0.3% with output 7.2% below January levels.
What is the Index of Industrial Production?
- IIP is an indicator that measures the changes in the volume of production of industrial products during a given period.
- It is compiled and published monthly by the National Statistical Office (NSO), Ministry of Statistics and Programme Implementation.
- It is a composite indicator that measures the growth rate of industry groups classified under:
- Broad sectors, namely, Mining, Manufacturing, and Electricity.
- Use-based sectors, namely Basic Goods, Capital Goods, and Intermediate Goods.
- Base Year for IIP is 2011-2012.
About Eight Core Sectors:
- These comprise 40.27% of the weight of items included in the Index of Industrial Production (IIP).
- The eight core sector industries in decreasing order of their weightage: Refinery Products> Electricity> Steel> Coal> Crude Oil> Natural Gas> Cement> Fertilizers.
Q) In the ‘Index of Eight Core Industries’, which one of the following is given the highest weight? (2015)
- Coal production
- Electricity generation
- Fertilizer production
- Steel production
Q) With reference to the International Prize in Statistics, consider the following statements:
- It is awarded every year by a collaboration among five leading international statistics organisations.
- It is given to an individual as well as to a group of people who are working in the statistics field.
Which of the above statements is/are correct?
- 1 only
- 2 only
- Both 1 and 2
- Neither 1 nor 2
सांख्यिकी में अंतर्राष्ट्रीय पुरस्कार के संदर्भ में निम्नलिखित कथनों पर विचार कीजिये:
- यह हर साल पांच प्रमुख अंतरराष्ट्रीय सांख्यिकी संगठनों के सहयोग से दिया जाता है।
- यह एक व्यक्ति के साथ-साथ सांख्यिकी क्षेत्र में काम कर रहे लोगों के समूह को दिया जाता है।
उपरोक्त कथनों में से कौन-सा/से सही है/हैं?
- केवल 1
- केवल 2
- 1 और 2 दोनों
- न तो 1 और न ही 2
Explanation :
Recently, Indian-American mathematician CR Rao was awarded International Prize in Statistics, in 2023.
- The International Prize in Statistics is awarded every two years by a collaboration among five leading international statistics organisations.
- The prize recognises a major achievement by an individual or team in the statistics field.
- The prize is modelled after the Nobel prizes, Abel Prize, Fields Medal and Turing Award and is called Math’s Nobel.
- Rao, a prominent Indian-American mathematician and statistician was born to a Telugu family in Hadagali, Karnataka.
- He is currently a professor emeritus at Pennsylvania State University and Research Professor at the University at Buffalo.
- Rao has received many honours, like Padma Bhushan (1968) and Padma Vibhushan (2001).
- In his remarkable 1945 paper published in the Bulletin of the Calcutta Mathematical Society, Rao demonstrated three fundamental results that paved the way for the modern field of statistics and provided statistical tools heavily used in science today.
Q) With reference to the National Party Status, consider the following statements:
- There are six political parties at present which got national party status from the Election Commission of India.
- To get this status a political party should win a minimum of 2 per cent of the total seats in the Lok Sabha.
Which of the above statements is/are correct?
- 1 only
- 2 only
- Both 1 and 2
- Neither 1 nor 2
राष्ट्रीय दल का दर्जा के संदर्भ में निम्नलिखित कथनों पर विचार कीजिये:
- वर्तमान में छह राजनीतिक दल हैं जिन्हें भारत के चुनाव आयोग से राष्ट्रीय दल का दर्जा मिला है।
- इस स्थिति को प्राप्त करने के लिए एक राजनीतिक दल को लोकसभा में कुल सीटों का कम से कम 2 प्रतिशत जीतना चाहिए।
उपरोक्त कथनों में से कौन-सा/से सही है/हैं?
- केवल 1
- केवल 2
- 1 और 2 दोनों
- न तो 1 और न ही 2
Answer – C
Explanation :
Recently, The Election Commission grants national party status to Aam Aadmi Party.
- The Election Commission has recognised the Aam Aadmi Party (AAP) as a national party and withdrew the national party status of the All India Trinamool Congress, Nationalist Congress Party (NCP) and the Communist Party of India (CPI).
- The EC has also removed state party status granted to Rashtriya Lok Dal (RLD) in Uttar Pradesh, Bharat Rashtra Samiti (BRS) in Andhra Pradesh, People’s Democratic Alliance in Manipur, Pattali Makkal Katchi in Puducherry, Revolutionary Socialist Party in West Bengal and Mizoram People’s Conference in Mizoram.
- Now the country has six national parties- Bahujan Samaj Party, Bhartiya Janta Party (BJP), Communist Party of India (Marxist), Congress and Aam Aadmi Party (AAP)and National People’s Party.
- According to the Election Commission, any of these three conditions need to be met if a party is to be called a “national party”.
- A party’s candidates in a minimum of four states must get at least 6 per cent of the total votes polled in each of those states in the last national election. In addition to this, it should have won four seats in the Lok Sabha.
- A party should win a minimum of 2 per cent of the total seats in the Lok Sabha. The party’s candidates should have been elected from not less than three states.
- A party is recognised as a “state party” in at least four states.
Q) With reference to the Vibrant Village Programme, consider the following statements:
- It is a Central Sector Scheme implemented over the financial Years 2022-23 to 2025-26.
- Under this programme Vibrant Village Action Plans will be created by the Gram Panchayats.
Which of the above statements is/are correct?
- 1 only
- 2 only
- Both 1 and 2
- Neither 1 nor 2
वाइब्रेंट विलेज प्रोग्राम के संदर्भ में निम्नलिखित कथनों पर विचार कीजिये:
- यह वित्तीय वर्ष 2022-23 से 2025-26 तक लागू की गई एक केंद्रीय क्षेत्र की योजना है।
- इस कार्यक्रम के तहत ग्राम पंचायतों द्वारा वाइब्रेंट विलेज एक्शन प्लान बनाए जाएंगे।
उपरोक्त कथनों में से कौन-सा/से सही है/हैं?
- केवल 1
- केवल 2
- 1 और 2 दोनों
- न तो 1 और न ही 2
Explanation :
Recently, Union Home Minister launches a vibrant villages program on the China border in Arunachal Pradesh.
- It is a Central Sponsored Scheme implemented over the financial Years 2022-23 to 2025-26.
- The programme will provide funds for the development of essential infrastructure and the creation of livelihood opportunities in 19 Districts and 46 Border blocks of 4 states and 1 UT along the northern land border of the country – Arunachal Pradesh, Sikkim, Uttarakhand, Himachal Pradesh and UT of Ladakh.
- The programme will help in improving the quality of life of people living in identified border villages and encourage people to stay in their native locations thereby reversing the outmigration from these villages and adding to the security of the border.
- Focus Areas: Road connectivity, drinking water, electricity including solar and wind energy, mobile and internet connectivity and healthcare infrastructure and wellness centres etc.
- Vibrant Village Action Plans will be created by the district administration with the help of Gram Panchayats and 100 % saturation of Central and state schemes will be ensured.
- There will not be an overlap with Border Area Development Programme.
Q) Suhelwa Wildlife Sanctuary, which was recently seen in the news, is located in which state?
- Karnataka
- Haryana
- Uttar Pradesh
- Odisha
हाल ही में खबरों में रहा सुहेलवा वन्यजीव अभ्यारण्य किस राज्य में स्थित है?
- कर्नाटक
- हरियाणा
- उत्तर प्रदेश
- ओडिशा
Explanation :
In the recently released report on the tiger census in the country, it is said that Suhelwa Wildlife Sanctuary is a new area where photographic evidence of tigers has been recorded for the first time.
- It is located in the state of Uttar Pradesh.
- It is one of the important places in the Bhabar-Tarai Eco-System area which is rich in biodiversity.
- The Sohelwa Wild Life Division is situated on the Indo-Nepal International Border.
- Flora: The main tree species are Sal, Asna, Khair, Teak etc. The Sanctuary area is very rich in medicinal plants. Some species of medicinal plants are white Musuli, Black Musuli, Piper longum, and Adhatoda vasica etc found here.
- Fauna: Different types of mammals are found here viz. Leopard, Bear, Wolf, Hyena, Jackal, Wild Boar, Sambhar, Spotted Deer etc.