MPPSC Prelims Answer Key 2025 | यहाँ देखें MPPSC Prelims 2025 के Answers

The Madhya Pradesh Public Service Commission (MPPSC) successfully conducted the State Service Exam (SSE) Prelims on February 16, 2025, in two shifts across multiple exam centers. Candidates eagerly awaiting their results can now refer to the MPPSC Prelims Answer Key 2025 to evaluate their performance. The MPPSC Prelims Answer Key 2025 provides a detailed solution set for all questions, helping aspirants estimate their scores before the official results are announced.

MPPSC Prelims Answers 2025 – GS Paper 1 (Set A)

Q1. In which style is the Kailasanathar Temple at Kanchi constructed?
(a) Rajasimha style
(b) Mamalla style
(c) Mahendra style
(d) Nandivarman style

Q1. कांची का कैलासनाथर मंदिर किस शैली में बना है ?
(A) राजसिम्हा शैली

(B) मामल्ल शैली

(D) नंदीवर्मन शैली

उत्तर: (A)

Explanation:

The Kailasanathar Temple at Kanchi was built during the reign of the Pallava king Narasimhavarman II, popularly known as Rajasimha.
Its architecture exemplifies the Rajasimha style, characterized by intricate carvings, extensive use of granite, and an innovative structural design.
This temple set a precedent for later South Indian temple architecture and is widely studied for its historical and cultural significance.

Q2. ‘Adobe Photoshop’ is an example of which type of general-purpose application software?
(a) Graphics software
(b) Multimedia software
(c) Web series software
(d) Database software

Q2. ‘एडोब फोटोशॉप’ किस प्रकार के सामान्य प्रयोजन एप्लिकेशन सॉफ्टवेयर का एक उदाहरण है ?
(A) ग्राफिक्स सॉफ्टवेयर

(B) मल्टीमीडिया सॉफ्टवेयर

(D) डेटाबेस सॉफ्टवेयर

उत्तर: (A)

Explanation:

Adobe Photoshop is designed for creating, editing, and manipulating images.
It is classified as graphics software because it provides an extensive suite of tools for digital image processing.

Q3. According to the States Reorganisation Act, 1956, how many states and Union Territories were formed in India?
(a) 11 states and 6 Union Territories
(b) 12 states and 7 Union Territories
(c) 13 states and 7 Union Territories
(d) 14 states and 6 Union Territories

Q3. राज्य पुनर्गठन अधिनियम, 1956 के अनुसार कितने राज्य और केन्द्र-शासित प्रदेश बनाए गए थे ?
(A) 11 राज्य और 6 केन्द्र-शासित प्रदेश

(B) 12 राज्य और 7 केन्द्र-शासित प्रदेश

(D) 14 राज्य और 6 केन्द्र-शासित प्रदेश

उत्तर: (D)

Explanation:

The States Reorganisation Act, 1956 reorganized Indian states primarily on linguistic lines.
As a result, India was reorganized into 14 states and 6 Union Territories.
This reorganization played a critical role in improving administrative efficiency and ensuring that states reflected cultural and linguistic identities.

Q4. When did the Muslim League announce its “direct action”?
(a) 22 June 1946
(b) 16 August 1946
(c) 22 October 1946
(d) 22 August 1946

Q4. मुस्लिम लीग ने ‘सीधी कार्यवाही’ करने की घोषणा कब की ?
A) 22 जून, 1946

(B) 16 अगस्त, 1946

(D) 22 अगस्त, 1946

उत्तर: (B)

Explanation:

The Muslim League announced “direct action” on 16 August 1946 as part of its campaign for a separate nation, which eventually contributed to the Partition of India.
The aim of Direct Action Day by the Muslim League was to get Pakistan through violent means if not by legal means.

Q5. 6 April 1930 is well-known in Indian history because it is related to:
(a) Quit India Movement
(b) Partition of Bengal
(c) Jallianwala Bagh Massacre
(d) Mahatma Gandhi’s Dandi March

Q5. 6 अप्रैल, 1930 की तिथि भारत के इतिहास में अच्छी तरह जानी जाती है क्योंकि यह तिथि संबंधित है :

(A) भारत छोड़ो आन्दोलन से

(B) बंगाल विभाजन से

(D) महात्मा गाँधी द्वारा डांडी यात्रा से

उत्तर: (D)

Explanation:

6 April 1930 is associated with Mahatma Gandhi’s Dandi March (or Salt March), a key event in the Indian independence movement.
This non-violent protest against the British salt tax mobilized millions and drew global attention to the struggle for freedom in India.

Q6. In India, which of the following parameters is generally not accepted for granting Special Category Status to a state?
(a) Hilly and difficult terrain
(b) Low population density
(c) Large population of Scheduled Castes and Scheduled Tribes
(d) Strategic location along international borders

Q6. भारत में किसी राज्य को विशेष दर्जा देने के लिए निम्नलिखित में से कौन-सा पैरामीटर सामान्यतः स्वीकार नहीं किया जाता है?
(A) पहाड़ी व कठिन भू-भाग

(B) कम जनसंख्या घनत्व

(D) अन्तर्राष्ट्रीय सीमाओं के साथ रणनीतिक स्थान

उत्तर: (C)

Explanation:

Special Category Status is usually awarded based on factors such as:-
- geographic remoteness,
- difficult terrain,
- low population density, and
- strategic border location.
A large population of Scheduled Castes and Scheduled Tribes, while important for social policy, is not a standard criterion for granting this status.

Q7. Regarding the appointment of the chairpersons for Parliamentary Committees for 2024–25 by the Speaker of the 18th Lok Sabha, which of the following pairs is incorrectly matched?
(a) Public Accounts Committee – K.C. Venugopal
(b) Estimates Committee – Baijayant Panda
(c) Committee on the Welfare of Scheduled Castes & Scheduled Tribes – Faggan Singh Kulaste
(d) Committee on the Welfare of Other Backward Classes – Ganesh Singh

Q7. 18वीं लोकसभा के स्पीकर द्वारा वर्ष 2024 – 25 के लिए गठित संसदीय समितियों के अध्यक्षों की नियुक्ति के संबंध में कौन-सा युग्म ग़लत है ?
(A) लोक लेखा समिति – के.सी. वेणुगोपाल

(B) प्राक्कलन समिति – बैजयंत पाण्डा

(D) अन्य पिछड़ा वर्ग कल्याण समिति – गणेश सिंह

उत्तर: (B)

Explanation:

The Speaker of the Lok Sabha appoints the chairpersons for various parliamentary committees based on experience and expertise.
KC Venugopal has been appointed chairperson of the committee on Public accounts. The PAC examines the appropriation accounts for the government’s railways, defence services, P&T department, and other civil ministries. They also review the CAG reports on these accounts
Dr Sanjay Jaiswal has been appointed as the Chair of the committee on Estimates. The committee examines the budget estimates for each administrative department. It also suggests ways to improve efficiency and administrative reform. Hence option (b) is not correctly matched.
Lok Sabha MP from Mandla constituency Dr Faggan Singh Kulaste has been appointed as the chairperson of the committee on the Welfare of Scheduled Castes and Scheduled Tribes.
Ganesh Singh, MP from Satna, Madhya Pradesh has been appointed as the chairperson of the Committee on Welfare of Other Backward Classes.

Q8. Among the Indian gold medal winners at the 2023 Asian Games in Hangzhou, China, which of the following athlete–event pairs is incorrect?
(a) Tajinderpal Singh Toor – Shot Put (Men)
(b) Avinash Sable – 3000 m Steeplechase (Men)
(c) Parul Chaudhary – 5000 m (Women)
(d) Annu Rani – 100 m Sprint (Women)

Q8. 2023 में हांगजोऊ, चीन में हुए एशियाई खेलों में भारतीय स्वर्ण पदक विजेताओं के लिए निम्नलिखित में से कौन-सा एथलीट – खेल युग्म ग़लत है ?
(A) तजिंदरपाल सिंह तूर – शॉट पुट (पुरुष)

(B) अविनाश साबले – 3000 मीटर स्टीपलचेज (पुरुष)

(D) अन्नू रानी – 100 मीटर स्प्रिन्ट (महिला)

उत्तर: (D)

Explanation:

While the first three athlete–event pairs are correctly matched regarding Indian gold medal winners at the 2023 Asian Games, the pairing “Annu Rani – 100 m Sprint (Women)” is incorrectly matched.
Annu Rani is an Indian javelin thrower.

Q9. Which of the following country–joint military exercise pairs with India is incorrect?
(a) Russia – Indra
(b) Kyrgyzstan – Khanjar
(c) Seychelles – Lamitye
(d) Thailand – Yudh Abhyas

Q9. निम्नलिखित में से कौन-सा देश और भारत के साथ संयुक्त सैन्य अभ्यास का युग्म ग़लत है ?
(A) रूस – इन्द्र

(B) किर्गिस्तान – खंजर

(D) थाईलैंड – युद्ध अभ्यास

उत्तर: (D)

Explanation:

India conducts various joint military exercises with different countries.
“Yudh Abhyas” is the name of a bilateral exercise conducted with the United States, not with Thailand.
The rest are correctly matched.

Q10. Which principle of data security management encompasses the processes, policies, and controls used to protect data from unauthorized access or use?
(a) Integrity
(b) Privacy
(c) Availability
(d) Confidentiality

Q10. डेटा सुरक्षा प्रबंधन का सिद्धांत, जो ग्राहकों और संगठन के डेटा को अवैध पहुँच या प्रयोग से सुरक्षित रखने के लिए उपयोग की जाने वाली प्रक्रियाओं, नीतियों और नियंत्रणों को शामिल करता है, उसे कहा जाता है :
(A) इंटीग्रिटी
(B) प्राइवेसी
(C) अवेलेबिलिटी
(D) कॉन्फिडेन्शिएलिटी

उत्तर: (D)

Explanation:

Data security is built on the principles of confidentiality, integrity, and availability (the CIA triad).
The principle that specifically focuses on protecting data from unauthorized access is confidentiality.
Measures such as encryption and access controls are used to maintain data confidentiality.

Q11. According to the India State of Forest Report (ISFR) 2021, which of the following districts in Madhya Pradesh has less than 10 percent forest cover (as a percentage of its geographical area)?
(a) Ashoknagar
(b) Morena
(c) Bhind
(d) Guna

Q11. भारत वन स्थिति रिपोर्ट (ISFR) 2021 के अनुसार, मध्यप्रदेश के इनमें से कौन-से जिले में वन आवरण 10 प्रतिशत (जिले के भौगोलिक क्षेत्रफल का %) से कम है ?
(A) अशोकनगर
(B) मुरैना
(C) भिण्ड
(D) गुना

उत्तर: (C)

Explanation:

The ISFR 2021, published by the Forest Survey of India, shows that Bhind district has less than 10% forest cover relative to its geographical area.

Q12. Under Article 338 of the Indian Constitution, which Commission is provided for?
(a) National Commission for Women
(b) National Commission for Minorities
(c) National Human Rights Commission
(d) National Commission for Scheduled Castes

Q12. भारतीय संविधान के अनुच्छेद 338 के अंतर्गत निम्नलिखित में से किस आयोग के गठन की बात कही गई है ?
(A) राष्ट्रीय महिला आयोग
(B) राष्ट्रीय अल्पसंख्यक आयोग
(C) राष्ट्रीय मानवाधिकार आयोग
(D) राष्ट्रीय अनुसूचित जाति आयोग

उत्तर: (D)

Explanation:

Article 338 of the Indian Constitution establishes the National Commission for Scheduled Castes.
This commission is tasked with safeguarding the interests and rights of Scheduled Castes, ensuring their representation in various governmental and social sectors.

Q13. The “Mukhyamantri Ladli Behna Yojana” implemented across Madhya Pradesh aims at economic self-reliance as well as which of the following?
(a) Women’s political participation
(b) Women’s marriage-related expenses
(c) Women’s health and nutrition
(d) Women’s rights in the criminal justice system

Q13. “मुख्यमंत्री लाडली बहना योजना” जो पूरे मध्यप्रदेश में क्रियान्वित की गई है, का उद्देश्य आर्थिक स्वावलंबन के अतिरिक्त निम्न भी है :
(A) महिलाओं की राजनीतिक भागीदारी
(B) महिलाओं के विवाह संबंधी खर्च
(C) महिलाओं के स्वास्थ्य एवं पोषण
(D) आपराधिक न्याय प्रणाली में महिलाओं के अधिकार

उत्तर: (C)

Explanation:

The “Mukhyamantri Ladli Behna Yojana” scheme is designed not only to promote economic self-reliance among women but also to enhance their health and nutritional status.
Improved nutrition contributes significantly to overall health and empowerment, which in turn supports the socio-economic upliftment of women in the state.

Q14. Between 30.04.1977 and 23.06.1977, when President’s Rule was imposed in Madhya Pradesh, who served as the Governor?
(a) Shri Mohammad Shafi Qureshi
(b) Shri Satya Narayan Sinha
(c) Shri Bhai Mahavir
(d) Shri B.D. Sharma

Q14. 30.04.1977 से 23.06.1977 के दौरान, जब मध्यप्रदेश में राष्ट्रपति शासन लागू किया गया, तब मध्यप्रदेश के राज्यपाल थे।
(A) श्री मोहम्मद शफी कुरेशी
(B) श्री सत्य नारायण सिन्हा
(C) श्री भाई महावीर
(D) श्री बी.डी. शर्मा

उत्तर: (B)

Explanation:

During the period of President’s Rule (30 April 1977 to 23 June 1977) in Madhya Pradesh, Shri Satya Narayan Sinha was the Governor.

Q15. Which of the following Governors of Madhya Pradesh had the shortest tenure?
(a) Pattabhi Sitaramayya
(b) Hari Vinayak Pataskar
(c) Kyasamballi Chengalaraya Reddy
(d) Satya Narayan Sinha

Q15. मध्यप्रदेश के निम्नलिखित राज्यपालों में से किसका कार्यकाल सबसे छोटा रहा ?
(A) पट्टाभि सीतारमैया

(B) हरि विनायक पाटस्कर

(D) सत्य नारायण सिन्हा

उत्तर: (A)

Explanation:

Among the governors listed, Pattabhi Sitaramayya is recorded as having the shortest tenure.
He was the governor of Madhya Pradesh for 244 days from 1 November 1956 to 13 June 1957.

Q16. As of March 2023, in which state of India was the installed solar power capacity the highest?
(a) Tamil Nadu
(b) Gujarat
(c) Rajasthan
(d) Karnataka

Q16. मार्च 2023 तक भारत में इनमें से कौन-से राज्य में सौर ऊर्जा की स्थापित क्षमता सर्वाधिक थी ?
(A) तमिलनाडु
(B) गुजरात
(C) राजस्थान
(D) कर्नाटक

उत्तर: (C)

Explanation:

According to the Ministry of New and Renewable Energy (MNRE), Rajasthan has the highest installed solar power capacity.
This is due to its favorable geographic conditions, high solar insolation, and vast expanses of available land, all of which support large-scale solar installations.

Q17. During the decade 2001–2011, which state recorded the highest population growth rate in India?
(a) Uttar Pradesh
(b) Rajasthan
(c) Meghalaya
(d) Bihar

Q17. दशक 2001-2011 में किस राज्य की जनसंख्या वृद्धि दर भारत में सर्वाधिक रही है ?
(A) उत्तर प्रदेश
(B) राजस्थान
(C) मेघालय
(D) बिहार

उत्तर: (C)

Explanation:

Meghalaya had the highest population growth rate in India between 2001 and 2011, at 27.8%.
Improved healthcare and natural growth rates are among the factors that contributed to this high growth, which poses challenges for resource planning and development.

Q18. Which of the following cyclones affected the coastal areas of Tamil Nadu in November–December 2024?
(a) Asna
(b) Dana
(c) Biparjoy
(d) Fengal

Q18. इनमें से कौन-से चक्रवात ने नवम्बर – दिसंबर, 2024 में तमिलनाडु के तटीय भाग को प्रभावित किया था ?
(A) असना
(B) दाना
(C) बिपरजॉय
(D) फेंगल
उत्तर: (D)

Explanation:

The cyclone that affected the coastal areas of Tamil Nadu in November-December 2024 was Cyclone Fengal.
Cyclone Fengal made landfall near Puducherry, bringing heavy rain and winds that caused widespread flooding in parts of Tamil Nadu and Puducherry.

Q19. As of 2024, which nuclear power station in India had the highest installed capacity?
(a) Kakrapar
(b) Kaiga
(c) Kalpakkam
(d) Kudankulam

Q19. वर्ष 2024 में भारत में निम्नलिखित में से कौन-से परमाणु ऊर्जा केन्द्र की स्थापित क्षमता सर्वाधिक थी ?
(A) काकरापार
(B) कैगा
(C) कलपक्कम
(D) कुडनकुलम

उत्तर: (D)

Explanation:

The Kudankulam Nuclear Power Plant is recognized for its high installed capacity and is a key component of India’s nuclear energy program.
It has two VVER-1000 pressurized water reactors, each with a capacity of 1,000 MW, bringing the total installed capacity to 2,000 MW.

Q20. In which Upanishad is the famous dialogue between Yājñavalkya and Gārgī found?
(a) Bṛhadāraṇyaka Upanishad
(b) Taittirīya Upanishad
(c) Aitareya Upanishad
(d) Praśna Upanishad

Q20. किस उपनिषद में याज्ञवल्क्य और गार्गी का प्रसिद्ध संवाद मिलता है ?
(A) बृहदारण्यक उपनिषद
(B) तैत्तिरीय उपनिषद
(C) ऐतरेय उपनिषद
(D) प्रश्नोपनिषद

उत्तर: (A)

Explanation:

The renowned dialogue between the sage Yājñavalkya and Gārgī is found in the Bṛhadāraṇyaka Upanishad.
This Upanishad is one of the oldest and most significant texts in the Vedantic tradition, offering profound insights into the nature of the self and ultimate reality.

Q21. Which non-profit organization is considered India’s apex body for setting standards in robotics and automation?
(a) All India Council for Robotics and Automation (AICRA)
(b) National Institute of Robotics and Artificial Intelligence (NIRA)
(c) India Science, Technology, Engineering & Mathematics (STEM) Mission
(d) Indian Robotics Skill Centre (RSCI)

Q21. निम्नलिखित में से कौन-सा गैर-लाभकारी संगठन भारत में रोबोटिक्स और ऑटोमेशन में मानक स्थापित करने के लिए शीर्ष निकाय है ?
(A) ऑल इंडिया काउंसिल फॉर रोबोटिक्स एंड ऑटोमेशन (ए.आई.सी.आर.ए.)
(B) नेशनल इंस्टीट्यूट ऑफ रोबोटिक्स एंड आर्टिफिशियल इंटेलीजेंस (एन.आई.आर.ए.)
(C) भारत विज्ञान, प्रौद्योगिकी, इंजीनियरिंग और गणित (स्टेम) मिशन
(D) भारतीय रोबोटिक्स कौशल केन्द्र (आर.एस.सी.आई.)

उत्तर: (A)

Explanation:

The All India Council for Robotics and Automation (AICRA) is recognized as the leading body responsible for establishing standards and policies in robotics and automation in India.
It collaborates with government agencies, industry experts, and academic institutions to promote innovation and standardization in this sector.

Q22. A malware that appears to be legitimate software but, once installed, behaves like a virus or worm is known as:
(a) Keylogger
(b) Ransomware
(c) Trojan
(d) Spyware

Q22. एक मैलवेयर, जो एक वैध सॉफ्टवेयर की तरह दिखता है और एक बार जब यह उपयोगकर्ता को बहला कर इसे इंस्टॉल करवा देता है, तो यह काफी हद तक वायरस या वर्म की तरह कार्य करता है, इसे कहा जाता है।
(A) कीलॉगर
(B) रैन्समवेयर
(C) ट्रोजन
(D) स्पाइवेयर

उत्तर: (C)

Explanation:

A Trojan disguises itself as a benign application to trick users into installing it.
Once installed, it can perform malicious actions such as stealing data or installing additional malware, behaving similarly to a virus or worm.
Its deceptive nature makes it particularly dangerous.

Q23. Under which Article of the Indian Constitution does the President issue public notifications declaring communities as Scheduled Tribes?
(a) Article 340
(b) Article 349
(c) Article 342
(d) Article 338

Q23. भारतीय संविधान के किस अनुच्छेद के अन्तर्गत राष्ट्रपति राज्य विशेष के लिए अनुसूचित जनजाति समुदायों के लिए लोक अधिसूचना जारी करते हैं ?
(A) अनुच्छेद 340
(B) अनुच्छेद 349
(C) अनुच्छेद 342
(D) अनुच्छेद 338

उत्तर: (C)

Explanation:

Article 342 of the Indian Constitution empowers the President to issue notifications designating communities as Scheduled Tribes.
This legal provision is crucial for ensuring that these communities receive the benefits of affirmative action and other developmental measures.

Q24. Consider the following statements about manganese in Madhya Pradesh and choose the correct option:

In 2020–21, MP ranked second in the country in terms of manganese deposits.
In 2020–21, MP ranked first in the country in manganese production.
There are manganese deposits in the Godavari and Wardha river valleys in Chhindwara district.
There are manganese deposits in Thandla tehsil of Jhabua district.

(a) 1, 2 & 3 are correct
(b) 2, 3 & 4 are correct
(c) 1, 3 & 4 are correct
(d) 1, 2, 3 & 4 are correct

Q24. मध्यप्रदेश में मैंगनीज के संबंध में निम्नलिखित कथनों को पढ़िए और नीचे दिए गए कूट से सही उत्तर का चयन कीजिए :

1. वर्ष 2020 – 21 में, मध्यप्रदेश मैंगनीज निक्षेप में देश में द्वितीय स्थान पर था

2. वर्ष 2020 – 21 में, मध्यप्रदेश मैंगनीजं उत्पादन में देश में प्रथम स्थान पर था

3. छिंदवाड़ा जिले में गोदावरी एवं वर्धा नदी घाटियों में मैंगनीज के निक्षेप हैं

4. झाबुआ जिले की थांदला तहसील में मैंगनीज के निक्षेप हैं।
कूट :
(A) 1, 2 एवं 3 सही हैं
(B) 2,3 एवं 4 सही हैं
(C) 1,3 एवं 4 सही हैं
(D) 1, 2, 3 एवं 4 सही हैं

उत्तर: (B)

Explanation:

Data from mining reports for 2020–21 confirm that Madhya Pradesh was the leading state in manganese production (statement 2) and that significant deposits exist in both the Godavari and Wardha valleys of Chhindwara and in Thandla tehsil of Jhabua (statements 3 and 4).
Statement 1, which claims that MP ranked second in deposits, is not correct. Odisha has the highest reserves of Manganese followed by Karnataka. Madhya Pradesh is in third place.

Q25. On which ground can impeachment proceedings be initiated against the President of India?
(a) Professional misconduct
(b) Violation of the Constitution
(c) Holding an office of profit
(d) Mental instability

Q25. भारत के राष्ट्रपति पर महाभियोग निम्नलिखित में से किस आधार पर लगाया जा सकता है ?
(A) व्यावसायिक कदाचार
(B) संविधान का उल्लंघन
(C) लाभ का व्यवसाय करना
(D) मानसिक अस्थिरता

उत्तर: (B)

Explanation:

Impeachment proceedings against the President of India can only be initiated on the basis of a violation of the Constitution.
This strict provision is designed to ensure that the highest constitutional office is not misused, maintaining the sanctity and integrity of the constitutional framework.

Q26. Which of the following statements about black soil in MP is not correct?
(a) It is formed by the weathering of Deccan lava.
(b) It has abundant nitrogen, phosphorus, and organic matter.
(c) It has a high moisture retention capacity.
(d) It is mainly found in the western parts of the state.

Q26. मध्यप्रदेश में काली मिट्टी के संबंध में इनमें से कौन-सा कथन सही नहीं है ?
(A) यह दक्कन लावा के अपक्षय से निर्मित हुई है।
(B) इस मिट्टी में नाइट्रोजन, फॉस्फोरस एवं जैव पदार्थों की मात्रा अधिक होती है।
(C) इस मिट्टी में नमी धारण करने की क्षमता अधिक होती है।
(D) यह मिट्टी मुख्यतः राज्य के पश्चिमी भागों में पाई जाती है

उत्तर: (B)

Explanation:

Black soil, also known as regur soil, is formed from the weathering of basaltic rocks (Deccan lava) and is noted for its excellent moisture retention.
However, it is typically deficient in nutrients such as nitrogen, phosphorus, and organic matter, which makes statement (b) incorrect.
This soil type is well known for its suitability for cotton cultivation despite its nutrient limitations.

Q27. ICMR – National Institute of Research in Tribal Health (NIRTH) is located in which MP city?
(a) Indore
(b) Bhopal
(c) Gwalior
(d) Jabalpur

Q27. आई.सी.एम.आर. – राष्ट्रीय जनजाति स्वास्थ्य अनुसंधान संस्थान (एन.आई.आर.टी.एच.) मध्यप्रदेश के किस शहर में स्थापित है ?
(A) इंदौर
(B) भोपाल
(C) ग्वालियर
(D) जबलपुर

उत्तर: (D)

Explanation:

The National Institute of Research in Tribal Health (NIRTH), under ICMR, is located in Jabalpur, Madhya Pradesh.
The institute focuses on research and interventions to address the unique health challenges faced by tribal populations in the region.

Q28. The “Shankar Shah and Rani Durgavati Award Scheme” for tribal students is intended for which purpose?
(a) Residential facility for higher studies
(b) Encouraging students who secure meritorious positions in class 10 & 12 exams
(c) Promotion of technical education
(d) Incentives for students who qualify national entrance tests for higher studies

Q28. जनजातीय वर्ग के विद्यार्थियों को शंकर शाह और रानी दुर्गावती पुरस्कार योजना दिए जाने का उद्देश्य है :
(A) उच्च अध्ययन के लिए आवासीय सुविधा हेतु
(B) 10वीं और 12वीं कक्षा की परीक्षाओं में मेधावी स्थान पाने वाले विद्यार्थियों को प्रोत्साहित करने हेतु
(C) तकनीकी शिक्षा में प्रोत्साहन हेतु
(D) राष्ट्रीय प्रवेश परीक्षाओं में सफल विद्यार्थियों को उच्च अध्ययन के लिए प्रोत्साहित करने हेतु

उत्तर: (B)

Explanation:

The “Shankar Shah and Rani Durgavati Award Scheme” award aims to motivate and reward tribal students who excel in their class 10 and 12 examinations.
By providing incentives, the scheme seeks to bridge educational disparities and encourage further academic pursuits among tribal communities.

Q29. Effective from 23.12.2017, under which tribal community is the “Aahar Anudan Yojana” launched to combat malnutrition?
(a) Bhil tribal community
(b) Particularly backward tribal community
(c) Uneducated tribal groups
(d) Unemployed tribal groups

Q29. दिनांक 23.12.2017 से ‘आहार अनुदान योजना’ किस जनजातीय समुदाय के कुपोषण को दूर करने की योजना है ?
(A) भील जनजातीय समुदाय
(B) विशेष पिछड़े जनजातीय समुदाय
(C) अशिक्षित जनजातियाँ
(D) बेरोज़गार जनजातियाँ

उत्तर: (B)

Explanation:

The “Aahar Anudan Yojana” was launched to address malnutrition among the particularly backward tribal communities.
This initiative aims to improve nutritional outcomes in these vulnerable groups by providing targeted support and resources.

Q30. As of 2023–24, how many large and medium Integrated Tribal Development Projects (ITDPs) exist in MP?
(a) 20
(b) 25
(c) 31
(d) 36

Q30. मध्यप्रदेश में वर्ष 2023 – 24 में कुल कितनी वृहद एवं मध्यम एकीकृत जनजातीय विकास परियोजनाएँ अस्तित्व में हैं?
(A) 20

(B) 25

(D) 36

उत्तर: (C)

Explanation:

According to state records, Madhya Pradesh has implemented 31 Integrated Tribal Development Projects (ITDPs).
These projects aim to improve infrastructure, livelihood opportunities, and socio-economic conditions in tribal areas, playing a vital role in the state’s development strategy.

Q31. What is the primary objective of monetary policy?
(a) To increase government expenditure
(b) To maintain price stability and ensure economic growth
(c) To reduce fiscal deficit
(d) To control foreign exchange reserves

Q31. मौद्रिक नीति का मुख्य उद्देश्य क्या है ?
(A) सरकारी खर्च बढ़ाना

(B) मूल्य स्थिरता बनाए रखना और आर्थिक वृद्धि सुनिश्चित करना

(D) विदेशी मुद्रा भण्डार को नियंत्रित करना

उत्तर: (B)

Explanation:

Monetary policy is primarily designed to maintain price stability—controlling inflation—while promoting sustainable economic growth.
Central banks, like the Reserve Bank of India, use instruments such as interest rates and open market operations to achieve these objectives, balancing inflation control with growth.

Q32. In FY 2023–24, which sector played a significant role in reducing India’s overall trade deficit?
(a) Agricultural exports
(b) Merchandise exports
(c) Services exports
(d) Automobile exports

Q32. वित्तीय वर्ष 2023 – 24 में भारत के कुल व्यापार घाटे को कम करने में किस क्षेत्र ने महत्त्वपूर्ण भूमिका निभाई ?
(A) कृषि निर्यात

(B) माल निर्यात

(D) ऑटोमोबाइल निर्यात

उत्तर: (C)

Explanation:

During FY 2023–24, services exports were pivotal in narrowing India’s overall trade deficit.
India’s strong IT, business process outsourcing, and financial services sectors have enabled it to secure significant revenue from service exports, thereby offsetting the merchandise trade deficit.

Q33. During 2017–18, which state in India had the highest capital intensity in the manufacturing sector?
(a) Gujarat
(b) Maharashtra
(c) Tamil Nadu
(d) Madhya Pradesh

Q33. वर्ष 2017-18 में भारत के किस राज्य में विनिर्माण क्षेत्र में पूँजी गहनता सबसे अधिक है ?
(A) गुजरात

(B) महाराष्ट्र

(D) मध्यप्रदेश

उत्तर: (D)

Explanation:

Capital intensity is measured as the amount of capital invested per unit of output.
Data from 2017–18 indicate that Madhya Pradesh had the highest capital intensity in its manufacturing sector, reflecting significant investments in technology and infrastructure relative to production output.

Q34. India is the world’s largest producer of which of the following agricultural commodities?
(a) Rice, Wheat, and Cotton
(b) Milk, Pulses, and Spices
(c) Tea, Coffee, and Jute
(d) Sugarcane, Maize, and Oilseeds

Q34. भारत किन कृषि उत्पादों में सबसे बड़ा उत्पादक है ?
(A) चावल, गेहूँ और कपास

(B) दूध, दालें और मसाले

(D) गन्ना, मक्का और तिलहन

उत्तर: (B)

Explanation:

India leads the world in the production of milk, pulses, and spices.
These commodities are crucial both for domestic consumption and for export, forming a significant part of the country’s agrarian economy.
Challenges in these sectors include supply chain management and quality control.

Q35. According to the 2011 Census, which district in MP recorded the highest decadal population growth rate?
(a) Singrauli
(b) Bhopal
(c) Indore
(d) Barwani

Q35. वर्ष 2011 की जनगणना के अनुसार, निम्नलिखित में से कौन-से जिले की जनसंख्या की दशकीय वृद्धि दर सर्वाधिक थी ?
(A) सिंगरौली

(B) भोपाल

(D) बड़वानी

उत्तर: (C)

Explanation:

Census data from 2011 reveal that Indore district experienced the highest decadal population growth rate in Madhya Pradesh.
Indore recorded a population growth rate of 32.9% during the decade, significantly higher than other districts in the state.
This growth is driven by urbanization, industrial development, and migration, which present both opportunities and challenges for urban planning and infrastructure.

Q36. What was the overall SDG (Sustainable Development Goals) score of MP in the SDG India Index 3.0 (2020)?
(a) 56
(b) 58
(c) 60
(d) 62

Q36. 2020 में SDG इंडिया इंडेक्स 3.0 में मध्यप्रदेश का समग्र SDG (सतत विकास लक्ष्य) स्कोर कितना था ?
(A) 56

(B) 58

(D) 62

उत्तर: (D)

Explanation:

The SDG India Index 3.0, published by NITI Aayog, evaluates state performance on various sustainable development indicators.
Madhya Pradesh achieved an overall score of 62, reflecting its progress in areas such as health, education, and environmental sustainability while also indicating areas that require further improvement.

Q37. In which state is the National Centre for Earth Science Studies (NCESS) located?
(a) Andhra Pradesh
(b) Kerala
(c) Tamil Nadu
(d) Karnataka

Q37. राष्ट्रीय पृथ्वी विज्ञान अध्ययन केन्द्र (NCESS) किस राज्य में स्थित है ?
(A) आन्ध्र प्रदेश

(B) केरल

(D) कर्नाटक
उत्तर: (B)

Explanation:

The National Centre for Earth Science Studies (NCESS) is located in Kerala.
It conducts advanced research in areas such as coastal processes, environmental monitoring, and geology, playing a critical role in informing disaster management and environmental policy.

Q38. What is the main objective of the “Udyam Kranti Yojana”?
(a) Providing free electricity to MSMEs
(b) Providing collateral-free loans for self-employment
(c) Tax exemption for start-ups
(d) Free training for entrepreneurs

Q38. उद्यम क्रांति योजना का मुख्य उद्देश्य क्या है ?
(A) MSMEs को मुफ़्त बिजली प्रदान करना
(B) स्वरोजगार के लिए गारंटी रहित ऋण प्रदान करना
(C) स्टार्टअप्स के लिए कर छूट
(D) उद्यमियों के लिए मुफ़्त प्रशिक्षण
उत्तर: (B)

Explanation:

The “Udyam Kranti Yojana” is designed to promote entrepreneurship by offering collateral-free loans for self-employment.
This scheme primarily benefits micro, small, and medium enterprises (MSMEs) and aims to reduce reliance on traditional bank loans, fostering innovation and grassroots economic development.

Q39. For the FY 2023–24, what percentage of MP’s total expenditure was allocated to education?
(a) 12–22%
(b) 10.5%
(c) 18.0%
(d) 15.0%

Q39. 2023 24 में मध्यप्रदेश सरकार के कुल व्यय बजट का कितना प्रतिशत शिक्षा के क्षेत्र के लिए आबंटित किया गया था ?
(A) 12-22%
(B) 10.5%
(C) 18.0%
(D) 15.0%
उत्तर: (A)

Explanation:

Budget documents for Madhya Pradesh in FY 2023–24 indicate that the education sector received between 12% and 22% of the total expenditure.
This allocation underscores the state’s commitment to enhancing educational infrastructure and quality, which are pivotal for long-term development.

Q40. In MP, during 2023–24, which vegetable had the highest productivity (yield per hectare)?
(a) Onion
(b) Potato
(c) Eggplant (Brinjal)
(d) Tomato

Q40. 2023 – 24 में मध्यप्रदेश में सबसे अधिक उत्पादकता वाली सब्ज़ी कौन-सी थी ?
(A) प्याज
(B) आलू
(C) बैंगन
(D) टमाटर

उत्तर: (D)

Explanation:

Agricultural reports and surveys from MP for 2023–24 indicate that tomato cultivation produced the highest yield per hectare among the vegetables listed.
Optimal climatic conditions, advanced farming practices, and efficient irrigation have contributed to this high productivity.

Q41. Under the National e-Governance Plan (NeGP), the compendium of mission mode projects is known as:
(a) E-Pramaan
(b) DigiLocker
(c) Saaransh
(d) MeitY

Q41. राष्ट्रीय ई-गवर्नेस योज़ना (NeGP) के तहत मिशन मोड परियोजनाओं का सार-संग्रह कहा जाता है :
(A) ई-प्रमाण
(B) डिजिलॉकर
(C) सारांश
(D) एम.ई.आई.टी.वाई
उत्तर: (C)

Explanation:

Within the framework of the National e-Governance Plan, the summary document that compiles information about all mission mode projects is called “Saaransh.”
This compendium provides a comprehensive overview of the projects’ progress, achievements, and challenges.

Q42. The social media platform “Facebook” was founded by:
(a) Mark Zuckerberg
(b) Bill Gates
(c) Jack Dorsey
(d) Elon Musk

Q42. सोशल मीडिया प्लेटफॉर्म ‘फेसबुक’ की स्थापना किसने की थी ?
(A) मार्क जुकरबर्ग
(B) बिल गेट्स
(C) जैक डोर्सी
(D) इलॉन मस्क
उत्तर: (A)

Explanation:

Facebook was founded in 2004 by Mark Zuckerberg along with his college roommates.
Since its inception, it has grown to become one of the largest social media networks globally, profoundly influencing communication and digital interaction.

Q43. According to Gartner’s e-Governance Development Model, what is the correct sequence of its four phases?
(a) Information → Interaction → Transaction → Transformation
(b) Interaction → Transaction → Information → Transformation
(c) Transaction → Transformation → Interaction → Information
(d) Interaction → Transaction → Transformation → Information

Q43. गार्टनर के ई-गवर्नेस के विकास मॉडल के चार चरणों का सही क्रम है :
(A) सूचना → बातचीत → लेन-देन → परिवर्तन

(B) बातचीत → लेन-देन → सूचना → परिवर्तन

(D) बातचीत → लेन-देन → परिवर्तन → सूचना

उत्तर: (A)

Explanation:

Gartner’s e-Governance Development Model outlines a progression starting with the dissemination of information, then enabling two-way interaction, followed by facilitating transactions, and finally achieving transformation in service delivery.
This phased approach helps governments measure and enhance their digital maturity.

Q44. Which of the following personalities did not receive the Padma Vibhushan Award in 2024?
(a) Vaijayantimala Bali
(b) Konidela Chiranjeevi
(c) M. Venkaiah Naidu
(d) A.R. Rahman

Q44. निम्नलिखित में से कौन 2024 के पद्म विभूषण पुरस्कार के प्राप्तकर्ता नहीं हैं ?
(A) सुश्री वैजयंतीमाला बाली

(B) श्री कोनिडेला चिरंजीवी

(D) श्री ए.आर. रहमान
उत्तर: (D)

Explanation:

The Padma Awards were first instituted in 1954 and are announced annually on the occasion of Republic Day (January 26th).
There are three categories of Padma Awards – Padma Vibhushan, Padma Bhushan, and Padma Shri – in descending order of importance. The Padma Vibhushan is awarded for exceptional and distinguished service, the Padma Bhushan for distinguished service of a high order, and the Padma Shri for distinguished service in any field
Official announcements confirmed that Vaijayantimala Bali, Konidela Chiranjeevi, and M. Venkaiah Naidu were among the recipients, A.R. Rahman was not awarded the Padma Vibhushan in 2024.

Q45. Under which Article of the Indian Constitution is there a provision for the reservation of seats for Scheduled Tribes in State Legislative Assemblies?
(a) Article 339
(b) Article 332
(c) Article 334
(d) Article 243D

Q45. भारतीय संविधान के किस अनुच्छेद में अनुसूचित जनजातियों के लिए राज्य की विधानसभा में सीटों के आरक्षण का प्रावधान है ?
(A) अनुच्छेद 339

(B) अनुच्छेद 332

(D) अनुच्छेद 243D

उत्तर: (B)

Explanation:

Article 332 of the Indian Constitution provides for the reservation of seats for Scheduled Tribes in the State Legislative Assemblies.
This constitutional provision is designed to ensure adequate political representation for tribal communities.

Q46. FPGAs are integrated circuits used for deploying AI. What does FPGA stand for?
(a) Field Programmable Gate Arrays
(b) Forward Programmable Graphical Advancement
(c) Forward Program Group Intelligence
(d) Faster Program Gesture Analytics

Q46. एफपीजीए (FPGA) एकीकृत सर्किट हैं, जिनका AI को डिप्लोय करने के लिए व्यापक रूप से उपयोग किया जाता है। एफपीजीए का विस्तृत रूप क्या है ?
(A) फील्ड प्रोग्रामेबल गेट एरेज़

(B) फॉरवर्ड प्रोग्रामेबल ग्राफिकल एडवांसमेंट

(D) फास्टर प्रोग्राम जेस्चर एनालिटिक्स
उत्तर: (A)

Explanation:

FPGA stands for Field Programmable Gate Arrays.
These are semiconductor devices that can be programmed or configured after manufacturing, making them ideal for a variety of applications, including artificial intelligence, signal processing, and digital circuit design.

Q47. Match the following books on tribes with their authors:

List-I (Book):
(i) The Tribes and Castes
(ii) Development in Tribal M.P.: A Planning Perspective
(iii) The Bhils: A Study
(iv) The Baiga

List-II (Author):

Verrier Elwin
T.B. Naik
R.V. Russell & R.B. Hira Lal
Ajit Raizada

Using the code (i) (ii) (iii) (iv), choose the correct answer:
(a) 3 – 4 – 2 – 1
(b) 1 – 4 – 2 – 3
(c) 4 – 1 – 3 – 2
(d) 2 – 3 – 1 – 4

Q47. जनजातियों पर लिखी पुस्तकों की सूची-I को उनके लेखकों की सूची-II से सुमेलित कीजिए और सूचियों के नीचे दिए गए कूट का उपयोग करके सही उत्तर का चयन कीजिए :

सूची-I (पुस्तक)	सूची-II (लेखक)
(i) द ट्राइब्स एण्ड कास्ट्स	1.वेरियर एल्विन
(ii) डेवलपमेंट इन ट्राइबल म.प्र. : ए प्लानिंग पर्सपेक्टिव	2. टी.बी. नाइक
(iii) द भील्स : ए स्टडी	3.आर.वी. रसेल एवं आर.बी. हीरालाल
(iv) द बैगा	4.अजित रायज़ादा

कूट : (i) (ii) (iii) (iv)

(A) 3 4 2 1
(B) 1 4 2 3
(C) 4 1 3 2
(D) 2 3 1 4

उत्तर: (A)

Explanation:

Based on established literary references and library catalogs, the correct matching is as follows:

“The Tribes and Castes” is authored by R.V. Russell & R.B. Hira Lal (3)
“Development in Tribal M.P.: A Planning Perspective” is by Ajit Raizada (4)
“The Bhils: A Study” is by T.B. Naik (2)
(iv) “The Baiga” is by Verrier Elwin (1)

Hence the correct sequence is 3 – 4 – 2 – 1.

Q48. In a computer network, the ability to recover from errors such as connection failures or data loss is known as:
(a) Routing
(b) Bandwidth
(c) Contention
(d) Resilience

Q48. किसी भी प्रकार की त्रुटि जैसे कनेक्शन विफलता, डेटा की हानि, आदि से उभरने की कंप्यूटर नेटवर्क की क्षमता को कहा जाता है।
(A) रूटिंग

(B) बैंडविड्थ

(D) लचीलापन (रेसिलिएंस)

उत्तर: (D)

Explanation:

Resilience refers to the ability of a computer network to recover from errors or disruptions, such as connection failures or data loss, and continue operating without significant interruption.
This is achieved through redundancy, failover mechanisms, and robust error correction protocols.

Q49. Which of the following works was not authored by Rajasekhara?
(a) Kāvyamīmāṃsā
(b) Karpūramañjarī
(c) Prabandhachintāmaṇi
(d) Viddhaśālabhañjikā

Q49. निम्नलिखित में से कौन-सी पुस्तक राजशेखर द्वारा नहीं लिखी गई है ?
(A) काव्यमीमांसा

(B) कर्पूरमंजरी

(D) विद्धशालभञ्जिका

उत्तर: (C)

Explanation:

Among the classical Sanskrit texts listed, “Prabandhachintāmaṇi” is not attributed to Rajasekhara.
Prabandhachintāmaṇi was written by Merutunga. It is an historical work of the early fourteenth century A.D.

Q50. MS-DOS is an operating system that uses which type of user interface?
(a) Graphical user interface
(b) Touch-based user interface
(c) Command-based interface
(d) Voice-based interface

Q50. MS-DOS निम्नलिखित में से किस प्रकार के यूजर इंटरफेस वाला एक ऑपरेटिंग सिस्टम है ?
(A) ग्राफिकल यूजर इंटरफेस

(B) स्पर्श-आधारित यूजर इंटरफेस

(D) आवाज (ध्वनि) आधारित इंटरफेस

उत्तर: (C)

Explanation:

MS-DOS is known for its command-line interface (CLI), where users interact with the operating system by typing commands.
It does not provide a graphical user interface (GUI), which differentiates it from modern operating systems.

Q51. Match the following districts with the corresponding cement industry locations in MP:

List-I (District):
(i) Damoh
(ii) Bhind
(iii) Satna
(iv) Morena

List-II (Cement Industry):

Malanpur
Narsinghgarh
Banmor
Maihar

Code (i) (ii) (iii) (iv):
(a) 2 – 1 – 4 – 3
(b) 4 – 2 – 1 – 3
(c) 3 – 4 – 2 – 1
(d) 1 – 3 – 2 – 4

Q51. सूची-I को सूची-II से सुमेलित कीजिए और सूचियों के नीचे दिए गए कूट का उपयोग करके सही उत्तर का चयन कीजिए :

सूची-I (जिला)	सूची-II (सीमेंट उद्योग)
(i) दमोह	1.मालनपुर
(ii) भिण्ड	2.नरसिंहगढ़
(iii) सतना	3.बानमोर
(iv) मुरैना	4.मैहर

कूट : (i) (ii) (iii) (iv)

(A) 2 1 4 3

(B) 4 2 1 3

(D) 1 3 2 4

उत्तर: (A)

Explanation:

Based on official records from MP’s Department of Industries, the correct matching is as follows:

Damoh corresponds to Narsinghgarh (2)
Bhind corresponds to Malanpur (1)
Satna corresponds to Maihar (4)
Morena corresponds to Banmor (3)

This alignment is consistent with the regional industrial mapping.

Q52. Regarding the Mahan Aluminium Plant in Singrauli, which of the following statements are correct?

It is located near Bargawan in Singrauli.
Production began in 2013.
80% of its total production is exported.
It uses French technology for smelting.

(a) 1, 2 & 3 are correct
(b) 2, 3 & 4 are correct
(c) 1, 2 & 4 are correct
(d) 1, 2, 3 & 4 are correct

Q52. सिंगरौली जिले के महान ऐलुमिनियम प्लांट के संबंध में निम्नलिखित कथनों के आधार पर नीचे दिए गए कूट से सही उत्तर का चयन कीजिए :

सिंगरौली जिले के बरगवां के निकट महान ऐलुमिनियम प्लांट अवस्थित है।
उत्पादन 2013 से प्रारंभ हुआ ।
इसके कुल उत्पादन का 80 प्रतिशत निर्यात किया जाता है।
स्मेल्टिंग के लिए फ्रांसीसी तकनीकी का उपयोग किया जाता है।
कूट :
(A) 1, 2 एवं 3 सही हैं
(B) 2,3 एवं 4 सही हैं
(C) 1,2 एवं 4 सही हैं
(D) 1, 2, 3 एवं 4 सही हैं

उत्तर: (C)

Explanation:

Industrial reports confirm that the Mahan Aluminium Plant is located near Bargawan in Singrauli, production began in 2013, and it utilizes French technology for smelting.
However, the claim that 80% of its production is exported is not supported by the available data, making statement 3 incorrect.

Q53. Which of the following tribal groups in MP is not classified as a Particularly Vulnerable Tribal Group (PVTG)?
(a) Sahariya
(b) Baiga
(c) Bharia
(d) Asur

Q53. निम्नलिखित में से कौन मध्यप्रदेश के विशेष रूप से कमजोर जनजातीय समूहों (PVTG) के अंतर्गत नहीं आते हैं ?

(A) सहरिया

(B) बैगा

(D) असुर

उत्तर: (D)

Explanation:

The Asur community is not classified as a Particularly Vulnerable Tribal Group in MP, whereas Sahariya, Baiga, and Bharia have been identified as such.
This classification is based on socio-economic vulnerability assessments conducted by the Ministry of Tribal Affairs.

Q54. In the Patalkot region of Chhindwara district, which tribe predominantly resides?
(a) Bhil
(b) Bharia
(c) Khairwar
(d) Oraon

Q54. छिंदवाड़ा जिले के पातालकोट क्षेत्र में कौन-सी जनजाति का बाहुल्य है ?
(A) भील

(B) भारिया

(D) उरांव

उत्तर: (B)

Explanation:

Ethnographic studies and governmental surveys reveal that the Bharia tribe is predominant in the Patalkot region of Chhindwara district.

Q55. Which award has not been conferred upon P.R. Sreejesh in his career?
(a) Arjuna Award
(b) Dhyan Chand Khel Ratna Award
(c) Padma Bhushan
(d) Dronacharya Award

Q55. पी.आर. श्रीजेश को अपने कैरियर में निम्नलिखित में से कौन-सा पुरस्कार नहीं मिला ?
(A) अर्जुन पुरस्कार

(B) ध्यान चन्द खेल रत्न पुरस्कार

(D) द्रोणाचार्य पुरस्कार

उत्तर: (D)

Explanation:

R. Sreejesh, the prominent hockey player, has received awards such as the Arjuna Award and Dhyan Chand Khel Ratna.
However, he has not been conferred the Dronacharya Award, which is reserved for coaches rather than players.

Q56. Through which constitutional amendment was the right to free and compulsory education for children aged 6 to 14 made a fundamental right?
(a) 68th Amendment
(b) 85th Amendment
(c) 86th Amendment
(d) 87th Amendment

Q56. किस संविधान संशोधन के द्वारा 6 से 14 वर्ष तक के बच्चों के लिए निःशुल्क एवं अनिवार्य शिक्षा के अधिकार को मौलिक (मूल) अधिकार बनाया गया ?
(A) 68वें संविधान संशोधन द्वारा
(B) 85वें संविधान संशोधन द्वारा
(C) 86वें संविधान संशोधन द्वारा
(D) 87वें संविधान संशोधन द्वारा
उत्तर: (C)

Explanation:

The 86th Amendment of the Indian Constitution, passed in 2002, made the right to free and compulsory education for children between the ages of 6 and 14 a fundamental right.
This landmark amendment has had a significant impact on ensuring universal education in India.

Q57. Match the following rivers with their associated places:

List-I (River):
(i) Betwa
(ii) Tapti (Tapi)
(iii) Kshipra
(iv) Wainganga

List-II (Place/Town):

Multai
Ujjain
Orchha
Balaghat

Code (i) (ii) (iii) (iv):
(a) 3 – 2 – 1 – 4
(b) 4 – 2 – 1 – 3
(c) 4 – 3 – 2 – 1
(d) 2 – 4 – 1 – 3

Q57. सूची-I को सूची-II से सुमेलित कीजिए और सूचियों के नीचे दिए गए कूट का उपयोग करके सही उत्तर का चयन कीजिए : सूची-I सूची-II (नदी) (स्थान/नगर)

सूची-I (खनिज)	सूची-II (प्रमुख क्षेत्र)
(i) बेतवा	1. बालाघाट
(ii) ताप्ती (तापी)	2. उज्जैन
(iii) क्षिप्रा	3. मुलताई
(iv) वैनगंगा	4. ओरछा

कूट : (i) (ii) (iii) (iv)

(A) 3 2 1 4

(B) 4 2 1 3

(D) 2 4 1 3
उत्तर: (D)

Explanation:
According to the official key, option (d) is provided, mapping as follows:
– (i) Betwa is associated with Orchha (3)
– (ii) Tapti is associated with Multai (1)
– (iii) Kshipra is associated with Ujjain (2)
– (iv) Wainganga is associated with Balaghat (4)

Given options are not correct.

Q58. Regarding the climate of MP, which set of statements is correct?

Most of the rainfall is from the monsoon.
Wind speed is higher during winter than in summer and monsoon.
Distance from the sea affects monsoon rainfall distribution.
Summer temperature in Pachmarhi is influenced by elevation.

(a) 1, 2 & 3 are correct
(b) 2, 3 & 4 are correct
(c) 1, 3 & 4 are correct
(d) 1, 2, 3 & 4 are correct

58. मध्यप्रदेश की जलवायु के संबंध में निम्नलिखित कथनों को पढ़िए और नीचे दिए गए कूट से सही उत्तर का चयन कीजिए :

प्रदेश में अधिकांश वर्षा मानसून से होती है।
शीतकाल में वायु की गति, ग्रीष्मकाल एवं वर्षा ऋतु की अपेक्षा तीव्र होती है।
प्रदेश में मानसूनी वर्षा के वितरण पर समुद्र से दूरी का भी प्रभाव पड़ता है।
पचमढ़ी में ग्रीष्मकाल में तापमान समुद्र तल से ऊँचाई से संबंधित है
कूट :

(A) 1, 2 एवं 3 सही हैं
(B) 2,3 एवं 4 सही हैं
(C) 1,3 एवं 4 सही हैं
(D) 1, 2, 3 एवं 4 सही हैं
उत्तर: (C)

Explanation:

In MP, the majority of rainfall occurs during the monsoon (statement 1).
The distribution of this rainfall is influenced by the state’s distance from the sea (statement 3), and higher altitudes, such as in Pachmarhi, result in lower summer temperatures (statement 4).
Statement 2 regarding higher winter wind speeds is generally not accurate.

Q59. Match the following minerals with their major regions in MP:

List-I (Mineral):
(i) Copper
(ii) Diamond
(iii) Slate
(iv) Bauxite

List-II (Major Region):

Shahdol
Hinota
Baihar
Mandsaur

Code (i) (ii) (iii) (iv):
(a) 2 – 1 – 4 – 3
(b) 3 – 4 – 1 – 2
(c) 4 – 3 – 2 – 1
(d) 1 – 3 – 2 – 4

Q59. सूची-I को सूची-II से सुमेलित कीजिए और सूचियों के नीचे दिए गए कूट का उपयोग करके सही उत्तर का चयन कीजिए :

सूची-I (खनिज)	सूची-II (प्रमुख क्षेत्र)
(i) ताँबा	1. मंदसौर
(ii) हीरा	2. शहडोल
(iii) स्लेट	3. बैहर
(iv) बॉक्साइट	4. हिनोता

कूट : (i) (ii) (iii) (iv)

(A) 2 1 (5) 4 3

(B) 3 4 1 2

(D) 1 3 2 4
उत्तर: (B)

Explanation:

Based on geological surveys and state mineral data, the official key provides option (b):
- Copper is associated with Baihar (3),
- Diamond with Mandsaur (4),
- Slate with Shahdol (1), and
- Bauxite with Hinota (2).
These associations reflect regional mineral distributions in MP.

Q60. Under the “One District One Product” scheme, what is the primary product identified for Chhatarpur?
(a) Tomato
(b) Cotton
(c) Wooden furniture
(d) Handloom textiles

Q60 “एक जिला एक उत्पाद योजना के तहत छतरपुर का प्रमुख उत्पाद क्या है ?
(A) टमाटर

(B) कपास

(D) हस्तकरघा वस्त्र

उत्तर: (C)

Explanation:

Chhatarpur is recognized under the “One District One Product” scheme for its traditional wooden furniture.
This initiative helps promote local craftsmanship and provides a boost to the district’s economy through focused marketing and value addition.

Q61. “Alhakhand” is attributed to which author?
(a) Chandr Bardai
(b) Rajasekhara
(c) Paramardideva
(d) Jagnik

Q61. ‘आल्हाखण्ड’ के लेखक कौन हैं ?
(A) चन्दबरदाई

(B) राजशेखर

(D) जगनिक
उत्तर: (D)

Explanation:

The literary work “Alhakhand” is attributed to Jagnik.
“Alhakhand” is a traditional ballad that describes the heroic deeds of the warriors Alha and Udal.
The poem is about the 52 battles fought by Alha and Udal.
These two heroes were part of the Banafar clan and served under the Chandela ruler Paramardi Deva.

Q62. Which of the following works was not written by Keshavdas?
(a) Ramchandrika
(b) Kavipriya
(c) Ratan Bawani
(d) Ram Rasayan

Q62. निम्नलिखित में से कौन-सी पुस्तक केशवदास द्वारा नहीं लिखी गई है ?
(A) रामचन्द्रिका
(B) कविप्रिया
(C) रतन बावनी
(D) राम रसायन
उत्तर: (D)

Explanation:

Keshavdas is known for his contributions to Hindi literature, including works like “Ramchandrika,” “Kavipriya,” and “Ratan Bawani.”
Ram Rasayan was written by Padmakar.

Q63. In MP, where is the Matangeshwar Temple located?
(a) Mandu
(b) Chitrakoot
(c) Tripuri
(d) Khajuraho

Q63. मध्यप्रदेश में मातंगेश्वर मंदिर कहाँ स्थित है ?

(A) माण्डू

(B) चित्रकूट

(D) खजुराहो
उत्तर: (D)

Explanation:

The Matangeshwar Temple is located in Khajuraho, a town famed for its historical monuments and intricate temple architecture.
Khajuraho is recognized as a UNESCO World Heritage Site and is celebrated for its exquisite carvings and cultural significance.

Q64. Which of the following is the smallest muscle in the human body?
(a) Biceps
(b) Sartorius
(c) Stapedius
(d) Triceps

Q64. निम्नलिखित में से कौन-सी मानव शरीर में सबसे छोटी मांसपेशी है ?
(A) बाइसेप

(B) सार्टोरियस

(D) ट्राइसेप
उत्तर: (C)

Explanation:

The stapedius muscle, located in the middle ear, is the smallest skeletal muscle in the human body.
It plays a critical role in dampening the vibrations of the stapes bone, thereby protecting the inner ear from damage due to loud sounds.

Q65. In which region of MP is the “Mansukha” folk theatre predominantly performed?
(a) Eastern Nimar
(b) Malwa
(c) Baghelkhand
(d) Western Nimar

Q65. मध्यप्रदेश के किस क्षेत्र में “मनसुखा” लोक नाट्य प्रचलित है?
(A) पूर्वी निमाड़
(B) मालवा
(C) बघेलखण्ड
(D) पश्चिमी निमाड़

उत्तर: (C)

Explanation:

“Mansukha” folk theatre is a traditional art form predominantly found in the Baghelkhand region of MP.
This performance art is an integral part of the region’s cultural heritage, reflecting local history, traditions, and social narratives.

Q66. Satkaryavada’ is the fundamental doctrine of which philosophical school?
(a) Vaiśeṣika
(b) Mimamsa
(c) Sankhya
(d) Nyaya

Q66. ‘सत्कार्यवाद’ किस दर्शन का मुख्य आधार है ?
(A) वैशेषिक दर्शन
(B) मीमांसा दर्शन
(C) सांख्य दर्शन
(D) न्याय दर्शन

उत्तर: (C)

Explanation:

Satkaryavada is a core principle of the Sankhya philosophy.
It posits that the effect pre-exists in the cause, meaning that nothing comes from nothing.
This doctrine has significantly influenced later Indian philosophical thought, particularly in discussions of causality and metaphysics.

Q67. In which ashram (stage of life) is the performance of the Panch Mahayajnas required?
(a) Brahmacharya
(b) Grihastha
(c) Vanaprastha
(d) Sannyasa

Q67. किस आश्रम में रहते हुए, मनुष्य को पंच महायज्ञों का अनुष्ठान करना पड़ता था ?
(A) ब्रह्मचर्य आश्रम
(B) गृहस्थ आश्रम
(C) वानप्रस्थ आश्रम
(D) संन्यास आश्रम

उत्तर: (B)

Explanation:

The Panch Mahayajnas are traditionally performed during the Grihastha (Householder) stage of life.
This ashram involves managing family and societal responsibilities, including the performance of essential religious rites that sustain social order.
It is during this stage that individuals are expected to fulfill various duties as prescribed by ancient scriptures.

Q68. In Tamil Nadu, among the Alvar saints, who was the only female saint?
(a) Nammalvar
(b) Poygai
(c) Thirumangai
(d) Andal

Q68. तमिलनाडु में वैष्णव धर्म का प्रचार अलवार संतों द्वारा किया गया। अलवार संतों में एकमात्र महिला साध्वी कौन थी ?
(A) नाम्मालवार
(B) पोयगई
(C) थिरुमंगई
(D) अण्डाल

उत्तर: (D)

Explanation:

Andal is recognized as the sole female Alvar saint in Tamil Nadu.
Her devotional poetry and significant contributions to the Bhakti movement have left a lasting impact on Tamil culture and spirituality.

Q69. In 2021–22, which state was the second-largest in area and ranked first in pulse production in India?
(a) Maharashtra
(b) Rajasthan
(c) Gujarat
(d) Madhya Pradesh

Q69. वर्ष 2021 – 22 में, इनमें से कौन-सा राज्य देश में क्षेत्रफल में द्वितीय और दालों के उत्पादन में प्रथम स्थान पर था ?
(A) महाराष्ट्र
(B) राजस्थान
(C) गुजरात
(D) मध्यप्रदेश
उत्तर: (D)

Explanation:

Madhya Pradesh is notable for being the second-largest state by area and for ranking first in pulse production during 2021–22.
This dual distinction highlights the state’s extensive agricultural base and its critical role in ensuring national food security.

Q70. Each Veda has its own Brahmana texts. The Brahmanas associated with the Yajurveda are:
(a) Gopatha
(b) Pancha-Vimsha and Jaiminiya
(c) Aitareya and Kaushitaki
(d) Taittiriya and Shatapatha

Q70. प्रत्येक वेद के लिए अलग-अलग ब्राह्मण ग्रंथ लिखे गए । यजुर्वेद से संबंधित ब्राह्मण ग्रंथ है :
(A) गोपथ
(B) पञ्चविश तथा जैमिनीय
(C) ऐतरेय तथा कौषीतकि
(D) तैत्तिरीय तथा शतपथ

उत्तर: (D)

Explanation:

The Brahmana texts linked with the Yajurveda are the Taittiriya and Shatapatha Brahmanas.
These texts provide detailed explanations of Vedic rituals and ceremonies, offering insights into the early development of religious and philosophical thought in ancient India.

Q71. Consider the following statements:
I. The first sitting of the Constituent Assembly was held on 9 December 1946 in New Delhi.
II. Jawaharlal Nehru was not invited to the Constituent Assembly.

Which option is correct?
(a) Both I and II are true
(b) Both I and II are false
(c) I is true, but II is false
(d) I is false, but II is false

प्रश्न 71. कथन I: संविधान सभा की पहली बैठक 9 दिसंबर, 1946 को नई दिल्ली में हुई थी।

कथन II: जवाहर लाल नेहरू को संविधान सभा में आमंत्रित नहीं किया गया था।

निम्नलिखित में से कौन सा विकल्प सही है?

(A) कथन I और कथन II दोनों सत्य हैं
(B) कथन I और कथन II दोनों असत्य हैं
(C) कथन I सत्य है, लेकिन कथन II असत्य है
(D) कथन I असत्य है, लेकिन कथन II असत्य है

उत्तर: (C)

Explanation:

The Constituent Assembly’s first sitting took place on 9 December 1946 in New Delhi.
Jawaharlal Nehru was elected to the Constituent Assembly from the United Provinces on a Congress Party ticket and held important positions on various committees. He actively participated in the Assembly debates on several key issues, including his landmark speech on the Objectives Resolution.
Thus, statement I is true and statement II is false.

Q72. In 2024, how many oil refineries were there in Madhya Pradesh?
(a) Three
(b) One
(c) Four
(d) Two

प्रश्न 72. 2024 में मध्य प्रदेश में तेल रिफाइनरियों की संख्या कितनी थी?

(A) तीन
(B) एक
(C) चार
(D) दो

उत्तर: (B)

Explanation:

As of 2024, there is one oil refinery in Madhya Pradesh, called the “Bina Refinery” located in the Sagar district.

Q73. In the context of the Indian Constitution, the ‘Basic Structure’ doctrine was first propounded in which case?
(a) Shankari Prasad vs. Union of India
(b) Champakam Dorairajan vs. State of Madras
(c) Golaknath vs. State of Punjab
(d) Kesavananda Bharati vs. State of Kerala

प्रश्न 73. भारतीय संविधान के संदर्भ में ‘मूल संरचना’ का सिद्धांत पहली बार निम्नलिखित में से किस मामले में प्रतिपादित किया गया था?

(A) शंकरी प्रसाद बनाम भारत संघ
(B) चंपकम दोराईराजन बनाम मद्रास राज्य
(C) गोलकनाथ बनाम पंजाब राज्य
(D) केशवानंद भारती बनाम केरल राज्य

उत्तर: (D)

Explanation:

The ‘Basic Structure’ doctrine was established in the landmark Kesavananda Bharati vs. State of Kerala case in 1973.
This doctrine limits the power of Parliament to amend the Constitution in a way that alters its fundamental structure, ensuring the core principles of the Constitution remain intact.

Q74. In the Indian Constitution, the provisions relating to the appointment of judges to the Supreme and High Courts are based on the recommendations of which committee (1945)?
(a) Harendra Kumar Committee
(b) Sen (Usha Nath Sen) Committee
(c) Varadachari Committee
(d) Sapru Committee

प्रश्न 74. भारतीय संविधान में सर्वोच्च न्यायालय और उच्च न्यायालय के न्यायाधीशों की नियुक्ति से संबंधित प्रावधानों को __________ समिति (1945) द्वारा दी गई प्रकाशित सिफारिशों के आधार पर शामिल किया गया था।

(A) हरेंद्र कुमार
(B) सेन (उषा नाथ सेन)
(C) वरदाचारी (एस. वरदाचारी)
(D) सप्रू (सर तेज बहादुर सप्रू)

उत्तर: (D)

Explanation:

The recommendations of the Sapru Committee (1945) form the basis for the provisions governing the appointment of judges to the Supreme Court and High Courts in India.
These recommendations have significantly influenced the judicial appointment process and remain an integral part of the constitutional framework.

Q75. Currently, the right to property in the Indian Constitution is recognized as:
(a) A fundamental right
(b) A directive principle of state policy
(c) A human right
(d) A legal right

प्रश्न 75. वर्तमान समय में, भारतीय संविधान में संपत्ति के अधिकार को निम्नलिखित में से किस रूप में स्वीकार किया गया है?

(A) मौलिक अधिकार
(B) राज्य नीति के निर्देशक सिद्धांत
(C)मानव अधिकार
(D) कानूनी अधिकार

उत्तर: (D)

Explanation:

Currently, the right to property in the Indian Constitution is recognized as a constitutional right under Article 300A, meaning it is not a fundamental right but still protected by the law, stating that no person can be deprived of their property except by authority of law; essentially, a legal right rather than a fundamental right.
After the 44th Constitutional Amendment, the right to property is no longer a fundamental right but is recognized as a legal right.

Q76. During 2021, in which state of India was the largest forest area recorded?
(a) Maharashtra
(b) Madhya Pradesh
(c) Odisha
(d) Andhra Pradesh

प्रश्न 76. वर्ष 2021 के दौरान, भारत में सबसे बड़ा वन क्षेत्र किस राज्य में था?

(A) महाराष्ट्र
(B) मध्य प्रदेश
(C) ओडिशा
(D) आंध्र प्रदेश

उत्तर: (B)

Explanation:

Madhya Pradesh has the largest forest cover in the country followed by Arunachal Pradesh, Chhattisgarh, Odisha and Maharashtra.

Q77. In Baghelkhand, Thakur Ranmatt Singh was hanged in which month and year?
(a) August 1857
(b) August 1858
(c) August 1859
(d) August 1862

Q77. बघेलखंड के स्वतंत्रता सेनानी ठाकुर रणमत्त सिंह को फांसी कब दी गई थी?

(A) अगस्त 1857

(B) अगस्त 1858

(D) अगस्त 1862

उत्तर: (C)

Explanation:

Thakur Ranmatt Singh, a noted freedom fighter from Baghelkhand, was hanged in August 1859.
This event is a significant part of the colonial history of the region and has been recorded in regional historical accounts.

Q78. The Southern Oscillation, a climate phenomenon, occurs between which two oceans?
(a) Pacific and Atlantic Oceans
(b) Pacific and Indian Oceans
(c) Atlantic and Indian Oceans
(d) None of the above

Q78. दक्षिणी दोलन इनमें से किन दो महासागरों के बीच एक दोलन प्रतिरूप है?

(a) प्रशांत और अटलांटिक महासागर

(b) प्रशांत और भारतीय महासागर

(d) उपरोक्त में से कोई नहीं

उत्तर: (B)

Explanation:

The Southern Oscillation involves variations in air pressure between the Pacific and Indian Oceans.
This phenomenon influences weather patterns, particularly the monsoons in the Indian subcontinent, and is a key subject of climatological research.

Q79. Which state in India ranked first in deposited iron ore reserves during 2020–21?
(a) Jharkhand
(b) Odisha
(c) Karnataka
(d) Chhattisgarh

Q79. इनमें से कौन सा राज्य भारत में लौह-अयस्क के निक्षेपित भंडार में प्रथम स्थान (2020-21) पर था?

(a) झारखंड

(b) ओडिशा

(d) छत्तीसगढ़

उत्तर: (B)

Explanation:

Mining reports from the Ministry of Mines indicate that Odisha ranked first in deposited iron ore reserves during 2020–21.
Odisha’s rich mineral resources are crucial to the country’s mining and steel industries, contributing significantly to regional and national economies.

Q80. Which of the following is the longest river among the options provided?
(a) Narmada
(b) Kaveri
(c) Krishna
(d) Godavari

Q80. निम्नलिखित में से कौन सी सबसे लंबी नदी है?

(A)नर्मदा

(B) कावेरी (कावेरी)

(D) गोदावरी

उत्तर: (D)

Explanation:

Among the rivers listed, the Godavari is the longest, especially in the context of peninsular India.
Godavari river is 1,465 km long.
While Narmada, Kaveri and Krishna have a total length of 1,312 km, 800 km and 1,400 km respectively.

Q81. 15 November is observed as Tribal Pride Day to commemorate the birth anniversary of which tribal leader?
(a) Tantya Mama
(b) Rani Durgavati
(c) Bhagwan Birsa Munda
(d) Maha Singh (Mahua Kol)

Q81.15 नवंबर को ‘जनजातीय गौरव दिवस’ किस आदिवासी नेता के जन्म के सम्मान के रूप में मनाया जाता है?

(A) टंट्या मामा

(B) रानी दुर्गावती

(D) महुआ कोल (महा सिंह)

उत्तर: (C)

Explanation:

Tribal Pride Day on 15 November honors Bhagwan Birsa Munda, a revered tribal leader whose contributions to the freedom struggle and advocacy for tribal rights have made him an enduring symbol of empowerment.
His legacy continues to inspire movements for tribal welfare.

Q82. Regarding the T20 World Cup Final 2024, which of the following statements is incorrect?
(a) It was held in South Africa
(b) Player of the Match – Virat Kohli
(c) Player of the Tournament – Jasprit Bumrah
(d) India defeated South Africa by 7 runs in the final

Q82. टी20 विश्व कप फाइनल 2024 के संबंध में कौन सा कथन गलत है?

(A) यह दक्षिण अफ्रीका में खेला गया था

(B) प्लेयर ऑफ द मैच – विराट कोहली

(D) भारत ने फाइनल में दक्षिण अफ्रीका को 7 रनों से हराया

उत्तर: (A)

Explanation:

The T20 World Cup Final 2024 was held in the West Indies and USA not in South Africa; hence, statement (a) is incorrect.
The other statements are correct.

Q83. MP Government’s initiatives to celebrate Rani Durgavati’s 500th birth anniversary include which of the following?

Rani Durgavati Ann Preranaa (Food Incentive)
Construction of a Rani Durgavati Memorial and Garden in Jabalpur
Establishment of the MP Tribal Women’s Welfare Board
Declaration of a public holiday on her birth anniversary

(a) Only 1
(b) Only 1 and 2
(c) Only 1, 2 and 3
(d) 1, 2, 3 and 4

Q83. मध्य प्रदेश सरकार ने रानी दुर्गावती की 500वीं जयंती मनाने के लिए कई पहल की हैं। निम्नलिखित में से कौन सा/से सही है/हैं?

रानी दुर्गावती अन्न प्रोत्साहन
जबलपुर में रानी दुर्गावती स्मारक एवं उद्यान का निर्माण
मध्य प्रदेश आदिवासी महिला कल्याण बोर्ड की स्थापना
रानी दुर्गावती की जयंती पर सार्वजनिक अवकाश की घोषणा

कूट :

(A) केवल 1

(B) केवल 1 और 2

(B) केवल 1, 2 और 3

(D) 1, 2, 3 और 4

उत्तर: (B)

Explanation:

According to official announcements, the MP Government implemented initiatives such as the Rani Durgavati Ann Preranaa and the construction of a memorial and garden in Jabalpur as part of her 500th birth anniversary celebrations.
The other measures listed were not part of the official celebration package.

Q84. For 2023, the prestigious Kishore Kumar Samman awarded by the MP Government was given to:
(a) Kailash Kher
(b) Shankar Mahadevan
(c) Rajkumar Hirani
(d) Vishal Bhardwaj

Q84. वर्ष 2023 के लिए मध्य प्रदेश सरकार के प्रतिष्ठित किशोर कुमार सम्मान के प्राप्तकर्ता कौन थे?

(A) कैलाश खेर

(B) शंकर महादेवन

(D) विशाल भारद्वाज

उत्तर: (C)

Explanation:

The MP Government honored Rajkumar Hirani with the Kishore Kumar Samman in 2023 in recognition of his significant contributions to the film industry.
This award is aimed at celebrating excellence in creative fields and encouraging emerging talent.

Q85. On World Tourism Day (27 September 2024), which of the following villages in MP was not recognized for its sustainable tourism initiatives?
(a) Pranpur
(b) Sabarwani
(c) Ladpura Khas
(d) Ghoghra

Q85. अंतर्राष्ट्रीय पर्यटन दिवस (27 सितंबर, 2024) पर मध्य प्रदेश के तीन गांवों को उनके उत्कृष्ट सतत पर्यटन प्रयासों के लिए भारत सरकार के पर्यटन मंत्रालय द्वारा मान्यता दी गई थी। निम्नलिखित में से कौन उनमें से नहीं था?

(A) प्राणपुर

(B) साबरवानी

(D) घोगरा

उत्तर: (D)

Explanation:

The Ministry of Tourism recognized three villages for exemplary sustainable tourism initiatives.
Ghoghra was not among the villages selected for this recognition.
This selection was based on innovative tourism practices and community engagement in sustainable development.

Q86. National Space Day in India is celebrated on:
(a) 23 May
(b) 23 September
(c) 23 August
(d) 23 November

Q86. राष्ट्रीय अंतरिक्ष दिवस कब मनाया जाता है:

(A) 23 मई

(B) 23 सितंबर

(D) 23 नवंबर

उत्तर: (C)

Explanation:

National Space Day in India is celebrated on 23 August to commemorate significant milestones in the country’s space exploration, particularly the achievements of ISRO.
National Space Day in India commemorates the successful landing of Chandrayaan-3 on the Moon.

Q87. The Environment (Protection) Act, enacted to safeguard environmental quality, was passed in:
(a) 1981
(b) 1986
(c) 1988
(d) 1998

Q87. भारत सरकार ने पर्यावरण की गुणवत्ता की रक्षा और सुधार के लिए पर्यावरण (संरक्षण) अधिनियम कब पारित किया:

(A) 1981

(B) 1986

(D) 1998

उत्तर:(B)

Explanation:

The Environment (Protection) Act was passed in 1986 by the Indian Parliament.
It provides a comprehensive legal framework for the protection and improvement of environmental quality in India and has been a cornerstone of the country’s environmental legislation.

Q88. A process by which an area’s biological community changes over time until a stable climax community is reached is known as:
(a) Ecological succession
(b) Succession
(c) Climax community
(d) Parallel evolution

Q88. किसी दिए गए क्षेत्र में क्रमिक रूप से परिवर्तित होने वाले समुदायों का वह संपूर्ण क्रम जो किसी दिए गए क्षेत्र में क्रमिक रूप से बदलता रहता है, कहलाता है:

(A) पारिस्थितिक अनुक्रमण

(B) क्रमक

(D) समानांतर विकास

उत्तर: (A)

Explanation:

Ecological succession is the process through which the structure of a biological community evolves over time.
It typically proceeds until a stable climax community is established.
This process is essential for ecosystem recovery after disturbances and for understanding long-term environmental changes.

Q89. Where is the Indian Institute of Petroleum located?
(a) Dhanbad
(b) Chandigarh
(c) Bhavnagar
(d) Dehradun

Q89. भारतीय पेट्रोलियम संस्थान कहाँ स्थित है:

(A)धनबाद

(B) चंडीगढ़

(D) देहरादून

उत्तर: (D)

Explanation:

The Indian Institute of Petroleum is located in Dehradun.
It plays an important role in research and development within the petroleum sector and is associated with the Ministry of Petroleum and Natural Gas.

Q90. Between FY 2011–12 and FY 2023–24, by how much did the per capita income (at current prices) in MP increase?
(a) Doubled
(b) Nearly three times
(c) Nearly four times
(d) No significant change

Q90. मध्य प्रदेश में वित्तीय वर्ष 2011-12 से 2023-24 तक चालू मूल्यों पर प्रति व्यक्ति आय कितनी बढ़ी है?

(A) दोगुना

(B) लगभग तीन गुना

(D) कोई महत्वपूर्ण परिवर्तन नहीं

उत्तर: (C)

Explanation:

Economic data from Madhya Pradesh indicate that the per capita income at current prices increased by nearly four times between FY 2011–12 and FY 2023–24.
This growth reflects substantial economic development driven by industrialization, infrastructure improvements, and increased productivity.

Q91. Under the National Adolescent Health Programme, which age group is included?
(a) 8 to 15 years
(b) 8 to 17 years
(c) 9 to 16 years
(d) 10 to 19 years

Q91. राष्ट्रीय किशोर स्वास्थ्य कार्यक्रम में किस आयु वर्ग के बच्चों/किशोरों को शामिल किया गया है?

(A) 8 से 15 वर्ष

(B) 8 से 17 वर्ष

(D) 10 से 19 वर्ष

उत्तर: (D)

Explanation:

The National Adolescent Health Programme (Rashtriya Kishor Swasthya Karyakram) targets adolescents aged 10 to 19 years.
This age group is critical for interventions aimed at improving health, nutrition, and overall well-being during this formative stage of life.

Q92. The Biological Diversity (Amendment) Act, 2023 was published in the Gazette on:
(a) 13 June
(b) 3 July
(c) 3 August
(d) 13 September

Q92. कानून और न्याय मंत्रालय द्वारा भारत के राजपत्र में प्रकाशित जैविक विविधता (संशोधन) अधिनियम, 2023 किस तारीख को प्रकाशित किया गया था?

(A) 13 जून

(B) 3 जुलाई

(D) 13 सितंबर

उत्तर: (C)

Explanation:

The Biological Diversity (Amendment) Act, 2023 was officially published in the Gazette on 3 August.
This publication marks the implementation of updated provisions designed to conserve biological diversity and regulate access and benefit-sharing of biological resources.

Q93. In 2018, the National Disaster Response Force (NDRF) Academy was established in which city?
(a) Nagpur
(b) Kanpur
(c) Bharatpur
(d) Shimla

Q93. वर्ष 2018 में राष्ट्रीय आपदा प्रतिक्रिया बल अकादमी की स्थापना किस शहर में की गई?

(A) नागपुर

(B)कानपुर

(D) शिमला

उत्तर: (A)

Explanation:

The National Disaster Response Force (NDRF) Academy was established in Nagpur in 2018.
The academy trains personnel in disaster management, ensuring a coordinated response to emergencies across India, which is crucial for national safety and resilience.

Q94. Dr. Vishnu Shridhar Wakankar discovered the rock shelters of Bhimbetka in:
(a) 1951–52
(b) 1954–55
(c) 1960–61
(d) 1957–58

Q94. डॉ. विष्णु श्रीधर वाकणकर ने भीमबेटका के शैलाश्रयों की खोज कब की थी?

(A) 1951 – 1952

(B) 1954 – 1955

(D) 1957 – 1958

उत्तर: (D)

Explanation:

Vishnu Shridhar Wakankar discovered the rock shelters at Bhimbetka during 1957–58.
These shelters are one of India’s most important archaeological sites, offering deep insights into prehistoric human life and artistic expression.

Q95. The National Sickle Cell Anaemia Elimination Mission aims to eliminate the disorder in India by the year:
(a) 2032
(b) 2037
(c) 2042
(d) 2047

Q95. ‘राष्ट्रीय सिकल सेल एनीमिया उन्मूलन मिशन’ ने किस वर्ष तक भारत से सिकल सेल एनीमिया को ख़त्म करने का लक्ष्य निर्धारित किया है?

(A)2032

(B)2037

(D)2047

उत्तर: (D)

Explanation:

The National Sickle Cell Anaemia Elimination Mission has set an ambitious target to eradicate the disorder by 2047.
The mission includes early diagnosis, treatment, and public awareness initiatives, particularly focused on vulnerable tribal and rural communities.

Q96. Uchehra, a major centre for bronze craft, is located in which MP district?
(a) Balaghat
(b) Satna
(c) Seoni
(d) Khandwa

Q96. उचेहरा कांस्य शिल्प का एक बड़ा केंद्र है। उचेहरा मध्य प्रदेश के किस जिले में स्थित है?

(A) बालाघाट

(B) सतना

(ग) सिवनी

(D) खंडवा

उत्तर: (B)

Explanation:

Uchehra is renowned for its bronze craft industry and is located in the Satna district of Madhya Pradesh.
The region’s artisanal traditions contribute significantly to the local economy and cultural heritage.

Q97. In the Bagh Caves (Dhar district), which cave is known as the “Rang Mahal”?
(a) The second cave
(b) The third cave
(c) The fourth cave
(d) The eighth cave

Q97. बाघ (जिला धार) की किस गुफा को रंग महल कहा जाता है?

(एक दूसरा

(B) तीसरा

(D) आठवां

उत्तर: (C)

Explanation:

Among the Bagh Caves in Dhar district, the fourth cave is popularly known as the “Rang Mahal” (Palace of Colours) due to its distinct and vibrant wall paintings.
These caves are an important part of India’s prehistoric heritage and offer valuable insights into ancient art and culture.

Q98. The Nilgiri Hills lie between which two mountain ranges?
(a) Himalayas and Aravalli
(b) Vindhya and Satpura
(c) Sahyadri (Western Ghats) and Eastern Ghats
(d) Satpura and Aravalli

Q98. नीलगिरि पहाड़ियाँ इनमें से किस दो श्रेणियों के बीच स्थित हैं?

(A) हिमालय और अरावली

(B) विंध्याचल और सतपुड़ा

(D) सतपुड़ा और अरावली

उत्तर: (C)

Explanation:

The Nilgiri Hills are geographically located between the Sahyadri (Western Ghats) and the Eastern Ghats.
This positioning plays a significant role in the region’s climate and biodiversity.

Q99. In the Charan Paduka firing incident in Chhatarpur, who ordered the firing on the crowd?
(a) G.T. Fisher
(b) Asburn
(c) Major Gausan
(d) Major Timmis

Q99. छतरपुर के चरण पादुका गोलीकांड में भीड़ पर गोली चलाने का आदेश किसने दिया?

(A) जी टी फिशर

(B) असबर्न

(D) मेजर टिमिस

उत्तर: (A)

Explanation:

Charan Paduka massacre on the Makar Sankranti festival (14 January 1930) in Chhatarpur, called the “Jallianwala Bagh of Madhya Pradesh”.
General Fischer ordered the firing on non-violent Indian freedom fighters resulting in 21 deaths and many injured.

Q100. The Turiya Jungle Satyagraha was led by:
(a) Thakur Moham Singh
(b) Ramu Gond
(c) Ganjan Singh Korku
(d) Mooka Lohar

Q100. टूरिया जंगल सत्याग्रह का नेतृत्व किसने किया?

(A) ठाकुर मोहकम सिंह
(B) रामू गोंड
(C) गंजन सिंह कोरकू
(D) मूका लोहार

उत्तर: (D)

Explanation:

Muka Lohar led the Turiya Jungle Satyagraha in 1930.
The peaceful protest was against the British forest laws that restricted the rights of local people to access forest resources.
On October 9, 1930, Muka Lohar and his followers marched to cut grass in the jungles of Turiya
The police opened fire on the peaceful protesters, killing three women and one man, and injuring many others
The British government punished the youth and students by whipping.

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