JKPSC Answers Key 2025 | यहाँ देखें JKPSC Prelims Answer Key 2025 & Solutions

The JKPSC Answer Key 2025 is now available in PDF format for Question Booklet for Series C. Candidates can cross-check their answers with the official key and assess their performance. If satisfied, they can wait for the results, while those who find discrepancies can raise objections against the JKPSC Answer Key 2025 within the stipulated time frame.

The JKPSC successfully conducted the Combined Competitive Preliminary Examination (CCE) Prelims on 23rd February 2025 across multiple exam centres. Candidates eagerly awaiting their results can now refer to the JKPSC Prelims Answer Key 2025 to evaluate their performance. JKPSC Prelims 2025 Solved Question Paper provides a comprehensive analysis of every question, including detailed solutions to all questions.

JKPSC Prelims 2025 Answer Key – Solved Question Paper (Set C)

1. Consider the following statements regarding the legislative powers of the Parliament and the State Legislature:

i. Parliament has the authority to make laws for the entire territory of India.

ii. The State Legislature can make laws for the entire state or any part of it.

iii. Parliament has the power to enact extra-territorial legislation.

iv. Rajya Sabha can declare any subject from the State List to be of national interest by a resolution passed by a 2/3rd majority of its total membership.

Choose the correct answer:

A) i only

B) ii and iii only

C) i, ii, and iii only

D ii, iii, and iv

Ans. (C)

Explanation: 

1. Parliament has the authority to make laws for the entire territory of India.

• True. Under Article 245(1), Parliament can legislate for the entire territory of India, including states, union territories, and areas under Indian jurisdiction.

1. The State Legislature can make laws for the entire state or any part of it.

• True. As per Article 245(1), State Legislatures can make laws for the whole state or any specific part within its boundaries.

2. Parliament has the power to enact extra-territorial legislation.

• True.Article 245(2) empowers Parliament to make laws with extra-territorial operation, meaning laws can apply outside India if they concern Indian interests.

1. Rajya Sabha can declare any subject from the State List to be of national interest by a resolution passed by a 2/3rd majority of its total membership.

• False.Article 249 allows Rajya Sabha to pass such a resolution with a 2/3rd majority of members present and voting, not of its total membership.

2. Consider the following statements about Money Bills:

1. The introduction of Money Bills cannot occur in the Rajya Sabha

2. The Rajya Sabha does not have the power to amend or reject it.

3. The procedure for Money Bills includes the provision for a joint sitting of Parliament.

How many of the statement/s given above is/are correct?

A) Two

C) All three

B) One

D) None of the above

Ans. (A)

Explanation: 

1. The introduction of Money Bills cannot occur in the Rajya Sabha.

• True. As per Article 110 of the Constitution, a Money Bill can only be introduced in the Lok Sabha, not in the Rajya Sabha.

2. The Rajya Sabha does not have the power to amend or reject it.

• True. The Rajya Sabha can only make recommendations on a Money Bill but cannot amend or reject it. The Lok Sabha may choose to accept or ignore these recommendations.

3. The procedure for Money Bills includes the provision for a joint sitting of Parliament.

False. Article 108 provides for a joint sitting only for ordinary bills. Money Bills do not require or allow a joint sitting.

3. Consider the following statements regarding starred and unstarred questions:

i. The response to starred questions is provided orally.

ii. The response to starred questions is given in written form.

iii. The response to unstarred questions is provided orally.

iv. The response to unstarred questions is given in written form.

v. Supplementary questions can be asked for starred questions.

Choose the correct answer:

A) i, iv and v only

B) ii, iii, and v only

C) i and iii only

D) ii, iv, and v only

Ans. (A)

Explanation: 

Starred and Unstarred Questions in Parliament

In the Indian Parliament, Members of Parliament (MPs) can seek information from the government by asking different types of questions, primarily starred and unstarred.

1. The response to starred questions is provided orally.

• True.
• A starred question is marked with an asterisk (*) and is answered orally by the concerned minister in the House.
• MPs can ask supplementary questions based on the minister’s reply, allowing for real-time discussions.

1. The response to starred questions is given in written form.

• False.
• Starred questions require an oral reply. Though the main response is given orally, a written copy is provided to MPs, but the primary mode is oral.

iii. The response to unstarred questions is provided orally.

• False.
• Unstarred questions are answered in writing. There is no oral discussion on these questions during the parliamentary session.
• As a result, no supplementary questions can be asked.

1. The response to unstarred questions is given in written form.

• True.
• The written answers are laid on the table of the House and published in official records, ensuring transparency.

1. Supplementary questions can be asked for starred questions.

• True.

After the minister responds to a starred question, MPs can ask supplementary questions to seek clarifications or additional information. This feature makes starred questions a tool for live debates.

4. Which of the following are part of the Union List?

i. Duties in respect of succession to property other than agricultural land

ii. Corporation tax

iii. Taxes on agricultural income

iv. Taxes on income other than agricultural income

Choose the correct answer:

A) i and ii only

B) i, ii and ii only

C) i, ii and iv only

D) iii and iv only

Ans. (C)

Explanation 

The Union List under the Seventh Schedule of the Indian Constitution contains subjects on which only the Parliament can legislate.

1. Duties in respect of succession to property other than agricultural land

• Included in the Union List.
• Under Entry 87, Parliament can impose duties related to the succession of property, but agricultural land is excluded as it falls under the State List.

1. Corporation tax

• Included in the Union List.
• As per Entry 85, the Union Government can levy taxes on the income of companies, known as corporation tax. This is a major source of central revenue.

iii. Taxes on agricultural income

• Not included in the Union List.
• Under Entry 46 of the State List, only State Governments have the authority to tax income from agriculture. The Union Government has no jurisdiction over this tax.

1. Taxes on income other than agricultural income

• Included in the Union List.

According to Entry 82, Parliament can impose income tax on all sources except agricultural income, which remains under state jurisdiction.

5. Consider the following statements regarding the Sixth Schedule of the Indian Constitution-

i. It has special provisions for the administration of tribal areas in four north eastern states: Assam, Meghalaya, Tripura and Manipur.

ii. The tribal areas in these states are governed as Autonomous Districts.

How many of the above Statement/s is/are correct?

A) i only

B) ii only

C) Both

D) None of the above

Ans. (B)

Explanation:

1. It has special provisions for administering tribal areas in four northeastern states: Assam, Meghalaya, Tripura, and Manipur.

• False. The Sixth Schedule (Articles 244(2) and 275(1)) provides special provisions for the administration of tribal areas in four northeastern states — Assam, Meghalaya, Tripura, and Mizoram, not Manipur.
• Manipur, though a northeastern state with a significant tribal population, is not covered under the Sixth Schedule. Instead, it has other protective provisions under different laws.

1. The tribal areas in these states are governed as Autonomous Districts.

• True. The Sixth Schedule establishes Autonomous District Councils (ADCs) in the specified states to provide self-governance to tribal communities.

These councils have powers related to land management, forest resources, customs, and local governance, along with the authority to make laws on specific subjects like land use, inheritance, and village administration.

6. Which of the following parliamentary committee is jointly elected by both houses of Parliament?

A) Business Advisory Committee

B) Estimate Committee

C) Committee of Public Undertakings

D) Committee of Privileges

Ans. (C)

Explanation

1. A) Business Advisory Committee
   Not jointly elected. This committee exists separately in both Lok Sabha and Rajya Sabha. It is responsible for scheduling parliamentary business but members are chosen independently by each House.
2. B) Estimate Committee
   Not jointly elected. It is an exclusive Lok Sabha committee with members elected only from the Lok Sabha. Its main role is to examine budget estimates and suggest economic improvements.
3. C) Committee of Public Undertakings
   This is the only committee among the options that is jointly elected by both the Lok Sabha and Rajya Sabha. It consists of 22 members — 15 from Lok Sabha and 7 from Rajya Sabha. Its primary role is to evaluate the functioning of Public Sector Undertakings (PSUs) and ensure they adhere to proper policies and procedures.

D) Committee of Privileges
Not jointly elected. Like the Business Advisory Committee, the Committee of Privileges functions separately in both Houses. It examines cases related to the breach of parliamentary privileges but is formed independently in each House.

7. Consider the following functionaries:

i. Chief Election Commissioner

ii. Speaker of the Lok Sabha

iii. Judges of the Supreme Court

iv. Attorney General of India

Their correct sequence in the order of precedence is:

A) ii, iii, i, iv

B) ii, i, iii, iv

C) i, iї, iii, iv

D) i, iv, ii, i

Ans. (A)

Explanation

The Order of Precedence is a ceremonial protocol list that ranks key officials of India based on their importance during state functions. It is used to determine seating arrangements, formal invitations, and protocol-related matters.

1. Chief Election Commissioner (CEC)
   Ranks 17th in the Order of Precedence. The CEC heads the Election Commission and oversees free and fair elections but holds a rank lower than the Speaker and Supreme Court Judges in protocol.
2. Speaker of the Lok Sabha
   Ranks 6th in the Order of Precedence. As the presiding officer of the Lok Sabha, the Speaker holds a high constitutional position, ranking above the CEC and Supreme Court Judges.

iii. Judges of the Supreme Court
Rank 9th in the Order of Precedence. All Supreme Court Judges, including the Chief Justice (who ranks 6th separately), are positioned after the Speaker but before the CEC.

1. Attorney General of India
   Ranks 11th in the Order of Precedence. As the chief legal advisor to the Government of India, the Attorney General holds a significant position but ranks below the Speaker, Supreme Court Judges, and CEC.

Correct Sequence: (A) ii, iii, i, iv

8. Who among the following were members of the drafting committee of the Constituent Assembly?

i. B.R. Ambedkar

ii. Alladi Krishnaswamy Ayyar

iii. K. M. Munshi

iv. J.B. Kripalani

Select the correct answer using the code given below:

A) i and ii only

B) i, ii and iii only

C) i, ii and iv only

D) i, ii, iii and iv

Ans. (B)

Explanation

The Drafting Committee of the Indian Constitution was formed on 29th August 1947. Its primary responsibility was to draft the Constitution of India, and it consisted of seven members under the chairmanship of Dr. B.R. Ambedkar.

1. B.R. Ambedkar
   Member
   He was the Chairman of the Drafting Committee and played a pivotal role in framing the Indian Constitution. Often referred to as the “Architect of the Indian Constitution”, Dr. Ambedkar guided the committee through complex legal and constitutional challenges.
2. AlladiKrishnaswamyAyyar
   Member
   A renowned lawyer and former Advocate General of Madras, he made significant contributions to the legal aspects of the Constitution, especially concerning fundamental rights and the judiciary.

iii. K. M. Munshi
Member
A prominent lawyer, freedom fighter, and writer, K.M. Munshi was instrumental in shaping provisions related to fundamental rights, directive principles, and the structure of the federal system.

1. J.B. Kripalani
   Not a Member
   Although J.B. Kripalani was an influential leader in the Constituent Assembly and served as the President of the Indian National Congress during the critical period of independence, he was not a part of the Drafting Committee.

List of Actual Members of the Drafting Committee:

1. Dr. B.R. Ambedkar (Chairman)
2. AlladiKrishnaswamyAyyar
3. K.M. Munshi
4. N. GopalaswamiAyyangar
5. B.L. Mitter (later replaced by N. Madhava Rau)
6. Md. Saadullah
7. T.T. Krishnamachari (replaced B.L. Mitter after his resignation)

The correct members among the options are B.R. Ambedkar, AlladiKrishnaswamyAyyar, and K.M. Munshi.

9. With reference to the Comptroller and Auditor General of India, which of the following Statements is/are correct?

i. He/she is the head of the Indian Audit and Accounts Department.

ii. He/she holds office for five years or up to the age of 65 years, whichever is earlier.

iii. His/her duty is to uphold the Constitution of India and the laws of Parliament in the field of financial administration.

Select the correct answer using the code given below.

A) i only

B) ii and iii only

C) i and iii only

D) i, ii and iii

Ans. (C)

Explanation

The Comptroller and Auditor General (CAG) of India is a constitutional authority established under Article 148 of the Indian Constitution. The CAG plays a vital role in ensuring transparency and accountability in government finances.

1. He/she is the head of the Indian Audit and Accounts Department.
   Correct.
   The CAG is the head of the Indian Audit and Accounts Department and oversees the entire audit process for the Union and State governments. The CAG audits all expenditures from the Consolidated Fund of India, State Funds, and Union Territories and ensures that public money is used as authorized by law.
2. He/she holds office for five years or up to the age of 65 years, whichever is earlier.
   Incorrect.
   The tenure of the CAG is fixed by the Constitution as 6 years or until the age of 65 years, whichever is earlier (Article 148(3)). The statement incorrectly mentions a 5-year term, making it factually wrong.

iii. His/she has to uphold the Constitution of India and the laws of Parliament in the field of financial administration.
Correct.
The CAG plays a crucial role in maintaining financial discipline by auditing the accounts of the Union and State governments. By ensuring that government spending aligns with the laws passed by Parliament, the CAG upholds the Constitution and safeguards public funds.

• i is correct (CAG heads the Indian Audit and Accounts Department)
• ii is incorrect (tenure is 6 years, not 5)

iii is correct (CAG ensures constitutional compliance in financial administration)

10. Consider the following Committees:

1. Balwant Rai Mehta Committee

2. Ashok Mehta Committee

3. L M Singhvi Committee

4. Santhanam Committee

How many of the above Committees is/are related to the Panchayat Raj system?

A) Only one

B) Only Two

C) Only three

D) All four

Ans (C)

Explanation:

The Panchayati Raj System in India has evolved through the recommendations of various committees, each contributing to its framework and strengthening grassroots democracy. Let’s analyze each committee:

1. Balwant Rai Mehta Committee (1957)
   Related to Panchayati Raj

• This was the first committee to propose the establishment of the Panchayati Raj System.
• It recommended a three-tier structure:
  • Gram Panchayat (village level)
  • Panchayat Samiti (block level)
  • ZilaParishad (district level)
• It also emphasized democratic decentralization and the need for regular elections.

2. Ashok Mehta Committee (1978)
   Related to Panchayati Raj

• Formed to review the existing system and suggest improvements.
• Recommended a two-tier system instead of three:
  • ZilaParishad (district level) as the primary unit
  • Mandal Panchayat (cluster of villages)
• Stressed the need for regular elections, financial autonomy, and the involvement of political parties in Panchayat elections.

3. L. M. Singhvi Committee (1986)
   Related to Panchayati Raj

• Tasked with recommending ways to revitalize the Panchayati Raj System.
• Suggested making Panchayati Raj institutions a part of the Constitution.
• Recommended constitutional status to Gram Sabhas and the inclusion of a separate chapter in the Constitution, which eventually led to the 73rd Constitutional Amendment Act (1992).

4. Santhanam Committee (1962)
   Not related to Panchayati Raj

• This committee focused on anti-corruption measures and strengthening integrity in public administration.
• It recommended the establishment of institutions like the Central Vigilance Commission (CVC).
• It had no direct connection with Panchayati Raj reforms.

The committees related to Panchayati Raj are:

• Balwant Rai Mehta Committee
• Ashok Mehta Committee
• L. M. Singhvi Committee

The Santhanam Committee is unrelated to Panchayati Raj, making the total three relevant committees.

11. Which of the following expenditures are listed as the expenditure “charged’ upon the Consolidated Fund of India?

i. Salaries and allowances of the Speaker of the Lok Sabha

ii. Salaries and allowances of the Chairman of the Rajya Sabha

iii. Salaries allowances and pensions of the Judges of the Supreme Court and High Courts.

iv. Salaries, allowances and pensions of the Chief Election Commissioner.

Select the correct answer using the code given below:

A) i and ii only

B) ii and iii only

C) i, ii and iii only

B) i, ii, iii and iv only

Ans. (A)

Explanation:  

The Consolidated Fund of India (CFI) is the primary account of the Government of India, established under Article 266(1) of the Constitution. Certain expenditures are “charged” on the CFI, meaning they are not subject to a vote in Parliament and must be paid.

Let’s evaluate each statement:

1. Salaries and allowances of the Speaker of the Lok Sabha
   ✅Charged on the CFI
   As per Article 97 of the Constitution, the salaries and allowances of the Speaker of the Lok Sabha are charged on the Consolidated Fund of India to ensure independence and impartiality.
2. Salaries and allowances of the Chairman of the Rajya Sabha
   ✅Charged on the CFI
   The Chairman of the Rajya Sabha (the Vice-President of India) also receives salaries and allowances charged on the CFI, as provided under Article 97.

iii. Salaries, allowances, and pensions of the Judges of the Supreme Court and High Courts
❌Not charged on the CFI (in this context)
Although the salaries and pensions of the Judges of the Supreme Court are indeed charged on the CFI (Article 112), the inclusion of High Court Judges in this statement makes it inaccurate. The salaries of High Court Judgesare charged on the Consolidated Fund of the respective State, not the Union’s CFI.

iv. Salaries, allowances, and pensions of the Chief Election Commissioner (CEC)
❌Not charged on the CFI
While the CEC is a constitutional authority under Article 324, their salaries and allowances are not charged on the CFI but are subject to parliamentary approval.

12. Who made this statement: “Because of circumstances that have now come into being that the States have become, where it is federal or unitary, welfare states from being Police States and the ultimate responsibility as for the economic well-being of the country has become the paramount responsibility of the Centre”.

A) Rajendra Prasad

B) Jawaharlal Nehru

C) Bhimrao Ambedkar

D) T. T. Krishnamacharya

Ans. (D)

Explanation:

The statement reflects the shift in India’s governance philosophy from a “Police State”—primarily concerned with maintaining law and order—to a “Welfare State”—focused on promoting the economic and social well-being of its citizens.

The key part of the statement emphasizes that in modern India, the Central Government holds paramount responsibility for the economic well-being of the nation, transcending the traditional role of mere law enforcement.

Who made this statement?
The statement was made by T. T. Krishnamachari, who was one of India’s most influential statesmen and economists. He played a crucial role in shaping India’s economic policies post-independence.

Context of the Statement:

• T. T. Krishnamachari, as a member of the Constituent Assembly and later as India’s Finance Minister, emphasized the need for a strong central authority to ensure balanced economic development across the country.
• He argued that the Centre must take ultimate responsibility for the economic and social welfare of the nation, especially in a country like India, where regional disparities and socio-economic inequalities are significant.
• This statement aligns with the broader vision of India as a “Welfare State”, as enshrined in the Directive Principles of State Policy in the Indian Constitution.

T. T. Krishnamachari highlighted the transformation of Indian states into welfare states, emphasizing the central government’s role in ensuring the country’s economic well-being.

13. With reference to Censure Motion, consider the following statements:

i. It can be moved against an individual minister only.

ii. If it is passed in the Lok Sabha, the council of ministers must resign office.

iii. It should state the reasons for its adoption in the Lok Sabha.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

A) i only

B) ii only

C) Both i and ii

D) iii only

Ans. (D)

Explanation:

A Censure Motion is an important parliamentary tool used by the Lok Sabha to express disapproval or criticism of the actions or policies of the government or a specific minister. However, unlike a No-Confidence Motion, it does not lead to the resignation of the government if passed.

1. It can be moved against an individual minister only.
   Incorrect

• A Censure Motioncan be moved against an individual minister or the entire Council of Ministers.
• It is generally used to criticize a specific policy or action, but it is not limited to an individual minister.

1. If it is passed in the Lok Sabha, the council of ministers must resign office.
   Incorrect

• Unlike a No-Confidence Motion, the passing of a Censure Motion does not require the Council of Ministers to resign.
• It serves as a warning or expression of disapproval but does not have binding consequences on the tenure of the government.
• Only a No-Confidence Motion directly leads to resignation if passed.

iii. It should state the reasons for its adoption in the Lok Sabha.
Correct

• A key characteristic of a Censure Motion is that it must specify the reasons for which the motion is being moved.
• It is issue-specific and focuses on the conduct or policies that the Lok Sabha disapproves of.

Key Differences Between Censure Motion and No-Confidence Motion:

• Censure Motion:
  • Can be against an individual minister or the entire council.
  • Requires reasons to be stated.
  • Does not mandate resignation if passed.
• No-Confidence Motion:
  • Targets the entire Council of Ministers.
  • No need to state specific reasons.

If passed, the government must resign.

14. Below mentioned are four countries having largest Foreign Exchange Reser world in October 2024. Arrange these countries in decreasing order of the Exchange Reserves.

j. India

ii. Japan

iii. China

iv. Switzerland

Choose the correct order:

A) i, ii, iv, iii

B) iv, i, iii, ii

C) iii, ii, iv, i

D) ii, iv, is, i

Ans. (C)

Explanation:

Foreign exchange reserves are assets held by central banks in foreign currencies, used to back liabilities and influence monetary policy. As of October 2024, the four countries listed—China, Japan, Switzerland, and India—hold significant reserves. Arranging them in decreasing order requires examining their respective reserve amounts.

1. China

• Reserves: Approximately $3.59 trillion USD
• Details: China maintains the largest foreign exchange reserves globally, primarily held in U.S. dollars. This vast reserve supports its extensive international trade and economic stability.

2. Japan

• Reserves: Around $1.3 trillion USD
• Details: Japan’s substantial reserves are a result of its export-driven economy and interventions to stabilize the yen.

3. Switzerland

• Reserves: Approximately $952.68 billion USD
• Details: Managed by the Swiss National Bank, these reserves are held in various assets, including foreign currencies and gold, reflecting Switzerland’s status as a global financial center.

4. India

• Reserves: Around $682.13 billion USD
• Details: India’s reserves consist of foreign currencies, gold, Special Drawing Rights (SDRs), and its reserve position in the International Monetary Fund (IMF). These reserves bolster economic stability and support international trade.

Correct Order: China > Japan > Switzerland > India

15. Which of the following projects have been developed under the ‘Bharat Mala Pariyojana –

1. Delhi-Meerut Expressway

2. Eastern Peripheral Expressway

3, Chenani-Nashri tunnel

4. Ambala-Lucknow Expressway

5. Bengaluru Mysuru Expressway

Choose the correct answer:

A) 1,2, 3 and 4 only

B) 1,2, 3 and 5 only

C) 2,3 and 4 only

D) 3, 4 and 5 only

Ans. (B)

Explanation:

The Bharatmala Pariyojana is a flagship highway development program by the Ministry of Road Transport and Highways aimed at improving national highway corridors for enhanced freight and passenger movement. It focuses on developing economic corridors, expressways, border roads, coastal roads, and strategic infrastructure.

1. Delhi-Meerut Expressway
   ✅Included under BharatmalaPariyojana

• It is part of the initiative to improve connectivity between Delhi and Uttar Pradesh.
• This expressway reduces travel time between Delhi and Meerut significantly and forms a key link in the National Capital Region’s road network.

2. Eastern Peripheral Expressway
   ✅Included under BharatmalaPariyojana

• Designed as a bypass for Delhi, this expressway connects major highways and eases congestion in the capital.
• It is part of the broader effort to decongest Delhi under the Bharatmala scheme.

3. Chenani-Nashri Tunnel (Dr. Syama Prasad Mookerjee Tunnel)
   ✅Included under BharatmalaPariyojana

• Although completed before the launch of Bharatmala, it has been incorporated under the scheme for its strategic importance in improving connectivity in Jammu & Kashmir.
• It is the longest road tunnel in India and plays a critical role in all-weather connectivity.

4. Ambala-Lucknow Expressway
   ❌Not part of BharatmalaPariyojana

• While proposed in some state infrastructure plans, it has not been officially included in the Bharatmala program.

5. Bengaluru-Mysuru Expressway
   ✅Included under BharatmalaPariyojana

• Developed to boost connectivity between Bengaluru and Mysuru, it reduces travel time and supports regional economic development.

The projects included under the BharatmalaPariyojana are:

• Delhi-Meerut Expressway
• Eastern Peripheral Expressway
• Chenani-Nashri Tunnel
• Bengaluru-Mysuru Expressway

The Ambala-Lucknow Expressway is not part of the scheme. Therefore, the correct answer is (B).

16. Which of the following are the interventions under the ‘Rashtriyą Kishor SwasthygKaryakram’ (RKSK) in India?

i. Weekly Iron Folic Acid Supplementation Programme

ii. Scheme for Promotion of Menstrual Hygiene among Adolescent Girls

iii. Peer Educator Programme

iv. Adolescent Friendly Health Clinics

v. Janani Suraksha Yojana

Choose the correct answer:

A) i, ii, iii and iv only

B) i, iv and v only

C) ii, iii, iv and v only

D) iii, iv and v only

Ans. (A)

Explanation: 

The RashtriyaKishorSwasthyaKaryakram (RKSK), launched in 2014 by the Ministry of Health and Family Welfare, focuses on the overall health and well-being of adolescents (10-19 years). The program adopts a comprehensive approach addressing six key themes: nutrition, sexual and reproductive health, mental health, injuries and violence, substance misuse, and non-communicable diseases.

Evaluation of the Listed Interventions:

1. Weekly Iron Folic Acid Supplementation (WIFS) Programme
   ✅Included under RKSK

• Aims to reduce iron deficiency anemia among adolescents by providing iron and folic acid tablets weekly.
• It targets both school-going and out-of-school adolescents.

1. Scheme for Promotion of Menstrual Hygiene among Adolescent Girls
   ✅Included under RKSK

• Focuses on promoting safe menstrual hygiene practices among adolescent girls, particularly in rural areas.
• Includes awareness generation, distribution of sanitary napkins, and addressing taboos surrounding menstruation.

iii. Peer Educator Programme
✅Included under RKSK

• Involves selecting and training adolescents as Peer Educators to spread awareness on adolescent health issues within their communities.
• This participatory approach ensures that adolescents are both recipients and providers of information.

1. Adolescent Friendly Health Clinics (AFHCs)
   ✅Included under RKSK

• These clinics provide counseling and clinical services on nutrition, mental health, reproductive health, substance abuse, and other adolescent-specific concerns.
• Available at Primary Health Centers (PHCs), Community Health Centers (CHCs), and District Hospitals.

1. Janani Suraksha Yojana (JSY)
   ❌Not part of RKSK

• The Janani Suraksha Yojana is a separate scheme under the National Health Mission (NHM) aimed at promoting institutional deliveries among pregnant women and reducing maternal and neonatal mortality.

It is not specifically targeted toward adolescent health.

17. In the Pradhan Mantri MUDRA Yojna, choose the correct order of the loan categories, from the lowest to the highest, in terms of the loan limits:

A) Shishu, Tarun, Kishor

B Shishu, Kishor, Tarun

C) Tarun, Kishor, Shishu

D) Tarun, Shishu, Kishor

Ans. (B)

Ans. (B)

Explanation:  

The Pradhan Mantri MUDRA Yojana (PMMY)was launched in 2015 by the Government of India to provide financial support to non-corporate, non-farm small/micro enterprises. It aims to promote entrepreneurship by offering affordable credit without collateral.

Under PMMY, loans are categorized into three tiers based on the funding needs and business stage:

1. Shishu (Up to ₹50,000)

• 💡Target Audience: Start-ups and very small businesses in their initial stages.
• 💡Purpose: To help micro-entrepreneurs cover basic business needs such as purchasing tools, raw materials, or initial inventory.
• 💡Loan Limit: Up to ₹50,000 (Lowest loan limit under PMMY).

2. Kishor (₹50,001 to ₹5 Lakhs)

• 💡Target Audience: Businesses looking to expand or stabilize their operations.
• 💡Purpose: Suitable for enterprises that have moved beyond the start-up phase and require a higher investment for growth.
• 💡Loan Limit: ₹50,001 to ₹5 Lakhs.

3. Tarun (₹5,00,001 to ₹20 Lakhs)

• 💡Target Audience: Well-established businesses aiming for further expansion or diversification.
• 💡Purpose: To fund larger business needs like machinery purchase, technology upgrades, or infrastructure development.
• 💡Loan Limit: ₹5 Lakhs to ₹20 Lakhs (Highest loan limit under PMMY under latest announcement).

Correct Order (Lowest to Highest):

Shishu → 2. Kishor → 3. Tarun

18. Arrange the following sources of revenue of the Government of India mentioned in the Union Budget of 2024-25 in descending order:

i. Goods & Service Tax & other taxes

ii. Borrowing and Other Liabilities

iii. Corporation tax

iv. Income Tax

Choose the correct answer:

A) i, ii, iii, iv

B) ii, iv, i, iii

C) iv, iii, ii, i

D) iii, i, iv, ii

Ans. (B)

Explanation:

In the Union Budget for 2024-25, the Government of India’s revenue sources are categorized primarily into Tax Revenue and Non-Tax Revenue. Tax Revenue includes collections from various taxes such as Goods and Services Tax (GST), Corporation Tax, and Income Tax. Non-tax revenue comprises earnings from sources like dividends, profits, and other receipts.

According to the budget documents, for every rupee in the government’s coffers, the largest share, 66 paise, comes from direct and indirect taxes. The remaining revenue is sourced from borrowings, non-tax revenue, and capital receipts. Among direct taxes, corporate and individual income taxes contribute a total of 39 paise, with income tax accounting for 22 paise and corporate tax for 17 paise. In the indirect tax segment, GST generates 18 paise, making it the highest contributor among indirect taxes.

Borrowing and other liabilities constitute a significant portion of the government’s resources, often utilized to bridge the gap between revenue and expenditure. In the 2024-25 budget, borrowings are estimated to be ₹16,13,312 crore, which is 2.4% lower than the actuals of 2023-24.

Based on the available data, the descending order of the specified revenue sources is:

1. Borrowing and Other Liabilities
2. Income Tax
3. Corporation Tax
4. Goods & Services Tax and Other Taxes

Therefore, the correct answer is (B) ii, iv, iii, i.

19. FRBM (Fiscal Responsibility General and Budget Management) framework mandates the Central Government to limit the Central Government Debt and the General Government Debt by 31 March 2025.What are the limits of the Central Government Debt and the Government Debt, respectively?

A) 25 percent of GDP and 45 percent of GDP, respectively

B) 30 percent of GDP and 50 percent of GDP, respectively

C) 35 percent of GDP and 55 percent of GDP, respectively

D) 40 percent of GDP and 60 percent of GDP, respectively

Ans. (D)

Explanation: 

The Fiscal Responsibility and Budget Management (FRBM) Act, 2003 was enacted to ensure fiscal discipline, improve macroeconomic stability, and reduce the fiscal deficit of the Government of India. Its core objective is to maintain prudent levels of debt and promote long-term economic growth.

Key Provisions of the FRBM Act:

• The FRBM Act sets targets for fiscal deficit, revenue deficit, and debt-to-GDP ratios for both the Central Government and the General Government (which includes both the Centre and State Governments).
• It aims to limit excessive borrowing and ensure that government spending is sustainable.

Debt Targets under FRBM (Post-Amendments):

The FRBM (Amendment) Act, 2018 revised the fiscal consolidation roadmap, including the debt targets:

1. Central Government Debt Limit:

1. • The Act mandates that the Central Government’s debtshould be reduced to 40% of GDP by 31 March 2025.

2. General Government Debt Limit (Centre + States):

1. • The total debt for the General Government (Central + State Governments) should not exceed 60% of GDP by the same timeline.

Rationale Behind These Limits:

• Keeping the Central Government debt capped at 40% ensures that borrowing remains under control, maintaining investor confidence and financial stability.
• Capping the General Government debt at 60% allows States some fiscal space while ensuring the combined debt remains within manageable limits.

These limits aim to balance developmental spending with long-term fiscal sustainability, promoting economic stability while safeguarding against excessive debt accumulation.

20. Consider the following statements regarding the Finance Commission of India:

i. The Article 380(1) of the Constitution lays down the modalities for setting up distribution of a Finance Commission to make recommendations on the proceeds of taxes between the Union and the States during the award period.

ii. The 15th Finance Commission made its recommendations for a six-year period from 2020-21 to 2025-26.

iii. Dr. Arvind Panagariya is the Chairman Of the 16h Finance Commission.

iv. The 16th Finance Commission shall make its report available by 31 March 2025.

v. The 16th Finance Commission’s recommendations would cover the period of five years commencing 01 April 2026.

Which of the above statements is/are correct:

A) i, ii and iii only

B) i, iv and v only

C) ii, iii and iv only

D) ii, iii and v only

Ans. (D)

Explanation:

The Finance Commission of India is a constitutional body established under Article 280 of the Constitution, which outlines the process for constituting a Finance Commission to recommend the distribution of tax revenues between the Union and the States.

Analysis of the Statements:

1. Statement i: This statement incorrectly references Article 380(1) instead of Article 280(1). Article 280(1) pertains to the establishment of the Finance Commission. Therefore, this statement is incorrect.
2. Statement ii: The 15th Finance Commission was constituted to provide recommendations for the period from 2020-21 to 2025-26, covering six financial years. This statement is correct.
3. Statement iii: Dr. Arvind Panagariya has been appointed as the Chairman of the 16th Finance Commission. This statement is correct.
4. Statement iv: The 16th Finance Commission has been requested to submit its report by 31st October 2025, not by 31st March 2025. Therefore, this statement is incorrect.

Statement v: The recommendations of the 16th Finance Commission are set to cover a period of five years, commencing from 1st April 2026. This statement is correct.

21. Consider the following statements regarding Per Drop More Crop (PDMC) Scheme:

1. The PDMC Scheme focuses on enhancing water use efficiency at the farm level through Micro Irrigation.

2. It is a Centrally Sponsored Scheme.

3. It is implemented under Pradhan Mantri Krishi Sinchayee Yojana.

4. Financial Assistance @ 55% for Small & Marginal farmers and 45% for other farmers is provided by the government for the installation of Micro Irrigation under the Scheme.

How many of the above statement/s is/are correct?

A) Only one statement

B) Only two statements

C) Only three statements

D) All the four statements

Ans. (C)

Explanation:

The Per Drop More Crop (PDMC) scheme is a significant initiative by the Government of India aimed at enhancing water use efficiency at the farm level through the promotion of micro-irrigation technologies, such as drip and sprinkler systems. This scheme is a component of the Pradhan Mantri Krishi Sinchayee Yojana (PMKSY), which was launched on 1st July 2015.

Analysis of the Statements:

1. Statement 1:The PDMC Scheme focuses on enhancing water use efficiency at the farm level through Micro Irrigation.
   • Correct. The primary objective of the PDMC scheme is to promote micro-irrigation technologies to improve on-farm water use efficiency.
2. Statement 2:It is a Centrally Sponsored Scheme.
   • Correct. The PDMC is implemented as a Centrally Sponsored Scheme (CSS), with funding shared between the Central and State Governments.
3. Statement 3:It is implemented under Pradhan MantriKrishiSinchayeeYojana.
   • Correct. PDMC is a component of the Pradhan MantriKrishiSinchayeeYojana (PMKSY), specifically focusing on micro-irrigation.
4. Statement 4:Financial Assistance @ 55% for Small & Marginal farmers and 45% for other farmers is provided by the government for the installation of Micro Irrigation under the Scheme.

Correct. The scheme provides financial assistance of 55% of the unit cost to Small & Marginal farmers and 45% to other farmers for the installation of micro-irrigation systems.

22. Consider the following statements regarding National Electronic Fund Transfer (NEFT) and Real-Time Gross Settlement (RTGS):

1. In National Electronic Fund Transfer (NEFT), the transaction happens in batches and hence it is slow.

2. In Real-Time Gross Settlement (RTGS), transactions happen in real time and hence –being fast

3. There is no minimum limit in RTGS.

4. There is a Rs 2 Lakh minimum limit for NEFT.

How many of the above Statement/s is/are correct?

A) Only one statement

B) Only two statements

C) Only three statements

D) All the four statements

Ans. (B)

Explanation:

Explanation: National Electronic Fund Transfer (NEFT) and Real-Time Gross Settlement (RTGS)

NEFT (National Electronic Fund Transfer):

• Batch Processing: NEFT processes transactions in half-hourly batches, making it slower compared to real-time systems.
• No Minimum Limit: NEFT allows fund transfers of any amount without a minimum or maximum cap, making it flexible for both small and large transactions.

RTGS (Real-Time Gross Settlement):

• Real-Time Settlement: RTGS processes transactions individually in real-time, enabling faster fund transfers, especially for high-value payments.
• Minimum Limit: RTGS has a minimum limit of Rs 2 lakhs for transactions. There is no official maximum limit, but banks may impose their own ceilings.

Evaluation of Statements:

1. Correct – NEFT processes in batches, leading to delays.
2. Correct – RTGS offers real-time fund transfers.
3. Incorrect – RTGS has aRs 2 lakh minimum limit.

Incorrect – NEFT has no minimum limit.

23. Consider the following statements regarding eligibility criteria for Pradhan Mantri Awas Yojana-Urban (PMAY-U) 2.0 Scheme:

i. Low-Income Group (LIG) households are families with an annual income up to Rs. 3 lakhs.

ii. Economically Weaker Section (EWS) households are families with an annual income from Rs. 3 lakhs up to Rs. 6 lakhs.

iii. Middle Income Group (MIG) households are families with an annual income from Rs. 6 lakhs up to Rs. 12 lakhs.

The INCORRECT statement/s is/are:

A) i only

B) i and iii

C) iii only

D) i, ii and iii

Ans. (D)

Explanation: Pradhan MantriAwasYojana-Urban (PMAY-U) 2.0 Scheme – Eligibility Criteria

Income Categories under PMAY-U:

• EWS (Economically Weaker Section): Annual income up to Rs 3 lakhs.
• LIG (Low-Income Group): Annual income between Rs 3 lakhs and Rs 6 lakhs.
• MIG (Middle-Income Group):
  • MIG-I: Annual income between Rs 6 lakhs and Rs 12 lakhs.
  • MIG-II: Annual income between Rs 12 lakhs and Rs 18 lakhs.

Evaluation of Statements:
i. Incorrect – LIG income starts from Rs 3 lakhs, not up to Rs 3 lakhs.
ii. Incorrect – EWS income is up to Rs 3 lakhs, not Rs 3-6 lakhs.
iii. Incorrect – Though MIG-I is partially correct, it excludes MIG-II, making the statement incomplete.

Correct Answer:(D) i, ii and iii

24. Consider the following states and answer the question given below:

i. West Bengal

ii. Andhra Pradesh

iii. Assam

iv. Bihar

v. Sikkim

vi. Arunachal Pradesh

vii. Odisha

Which of the above states are covered under the Government of India’s ‘Purvodaya Plan as announced in the Union Budget 2024?

A) ii, iv, vi and vii

B) i, ii, iv and vii

C) i, iii, v and vi

D) i, ii, iii, iv, v, vi and vii

Ans. (B)

Explanation: Purvodaya Plan – Union Budget 2024

About the Purvodaya Plan:
The Purvodaya Plan is an initiative by the Government of India aimed at the accelerated development of Eastern India. It focuses on industrial growth, infrastructure development, and employment generation in the eastern states. The plan primarily targets sectors like steel, coal, and energy to boost economic progress in the region.

States Covered Under the Purvodaya Plan:
The initiative includes the following states:

• West Bengal
• Andhra Pradesh
• Bihar
• Odisha

These states are key contributors to industries such as steel, coal, and mining, which are crucial for India’s economic development. The plan aims to enhance industrial corridors, improve connectivity, and generate employment in these states.

Evaluation of Statements:
i. West Bengal – Covered
ii. Andhra Pradesh – Covered
iii. Assam – Not Covered
iv. Bihar – Covered
v. Sikkim – Not Covered
vi. Arunachal Pradesh – Not Covered
vii. Odisha – Covered

The correct states from the given options are West Bengal, Andhra Pradesh, Bihar, and Odisha.

Correct Answer:(B) i, ii, iv and vii

25. Consider the following statements regarding the “Monetary Policy Committee”.

The RBI Governor has to vote both in the first instance and in case of a tie.

ii. The monetary policy committee has to meet three times a year.

Choose the correct answer:

A) i only

B) ii only

C) Both i and ii

D) Neither i nor ii

Ans. (A)

Explanation:

Monetary Policy Committee (MPC):
The Monetary Policy Committee (MPC) is a statutory body constituted under the Reserve Bank of India Act, 1934. It was established to set the policy interest rate (repo rate) to control inflation, manage liquidity, and ensure economic stability in India.

The MPC consists of six members:

• RBI Governor (Chairperson)
• Deputy Governor of RBI (in charge of monetary policy)
• One officer of RBI nominated by the Central Board
• Three external members nominated by the Government of India

Evaluation of Statements:

1. The RBI Governor has to vote both in the first instance and in case of a tie.

• This statement is correct.
• The RBI Governor, as the Chairperson of the MPC, casts a regular vote during the decision-making process.
• In case of a tie among the members (i.e., 3-3 split), the Governor exercises a casting vote to break the deadlock.
• This provision ensures decisive action in critical monetary decisions.

1. The monetary policy committee has to meet three times a year.

• This statement is incorrect.
• As per the RBI Act, 1934, the MPC is required to meet at least four times a year..
• The decisions of the MPC are published after each meeting to maintain transparency.

Correct Answer:(A) i only

26. “Quotas are the building blocks of the IMF’s financial and governance structure. An individual member country’s quota broadly reflects its relative position in the world economy”. The above context, which of the following parameters are used to calculate quota?

i. GDP of the country

ii. Degree of Openness

iii. Demographic dividend

iv. Economic variability

v. International Reserves

Choose the correct answer based on the code given below:

A) ii, iii and v

B) i, ii, iv and v only

C) i, iii and v only

D) i, ii, ii and v only

Ans. (B)

Explanation:
Quotas are central to the functioning of the International Monetary Fund (IMF), serving as the basis for a member country’s financial commitment, voting power, and access to IMF resources. A member’s quota broadly reflects its position in the global economy and is determined using a weighted formula that includes the following parameters:

• (i) GDP of the country: A primary indicator reflecting the economic strength and size of a country. It has the largest weight in the quota formula.
• (ii) Degree of Openness: Measures a country’s involvement in global trade through exports and imports relative to GDP. More open economies generally have larger quotas.
• (iv) Economic Variability: Assesses how susceptible an economy is to external shocks, influencing its potential need for IMF assistance.
• (v) International Reserves: Reflects a country’s capacity to contribute to the IMF and its ability to handle external imbalances.

Incorrect Parameter:

• (iii) Demographic Dividend: Though important for domestic economic growth, it is not considered in IMF’s quota calculations.

Correct Answer:(B) i, ii, iv, and v only

 

27. Consider the following statements:

Statement-1: Invasive species can outcompete native species.

Statement-I1: Invasive species are always harmful to ecosystems.

Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements?

A) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II explains Statement I.

B) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II does not explain Statement-I.

C) Statement-I is correct, but Statement-II is incorrect

D) Statement-I is incorrect, but Statement-II is correct

Ans. (C)

Invasive Species and Ecosystems

Explanation:

• Statement-I:Correct — Invasive species often outcompete native species for resources like nutrients, water, and space, leading to declines or extinction of native populations.
• Statement-II:Incorrect — While many invasive species cause ecological harm, not all are detrimental. In some cases, they can fill ecological niches or provide benefits, though this is rare.

Correct Answer:(C) Statement-I is correct, but Statement-II is incorrect

28. Dendro climatology” deals with:

A) Soil moisture data

B) Tree ring data

C) Ice core data

D) Paleo magnetism data

Ans. (B)

Explanation:
Dendroclimatology is the study of tree ring data to understand past climate conditions. Trees grow in annual rings, and the thickness, density, and isotopic composition of these rings provide insights into historical temperature, precipitation, and even atmospheric conditions over centuries or millennia.

• Wider rings generally indicate favorable growth conditions (e.g., warm and wet years).
• Narrow rings suggest stressful conditions (e.g., drought or cold years).

This field is vital for reconstructing long-term climate patterns before the availability of modern weather records.

Correct Answer:(B) Tree ring data

29. Arrange the following biodiversity conservation efforts in India in chronological order from earlier to later:

i. Project Hangul

ii. Project Elephant

iii. Project Snow leopard

iv. Project Tiger

The correct answer/s is/are:

A) i, ii, iii, iv

B) i, iv, ii, iii

C) i, ii, iv, iii

D) iv, i, ii, iii

Ans. (B)

Chronological Order of Biodiversity Conservation Efforts in India

Explanation:
India has launched several targeted conservation projects to protect endangered species. Here’s their chronological order:

1. Project Hangul (1970): Launched to conserve the endangered Kashmir Stag (Cervushangluhanglu), also known as Hangul, found mainly in Dachigam National Park, Jammu & Kashmir.
2. Project Tiger (1973): One of India’s most successful conservation efforts, aimed at protecting the Royal Bengal Tiger and its habitats.
3. Project Elephant (1992): Started to safeguard Asian elephants, their habitats, and corridors while reducing human-elephant conflict.
4. Project Snow Leopard (2009): Initiated to protect the elusive Snow Leopard in the high-altitude regions of the Himalayas.

Correct Order:i → iv → ii → iii
Correct Answer:(B) i, iv, ii, iii

30. Match the following Act with the year of their enactment:

Act Year of enactment

1. Wildlife Protection Act i. 1974

2. Environment Protection Act ii. 1986

3. Biological Diversity Act iii. 2002

4. Water (Prevention & Control of Pollution) Act iV. 1972

Choose the correct answer:

A) 1-iv, 2-ii, 3-iii, 4-i

B) 1-i, 2-ii, 3-iii, 4-iv

C) 1-iv, 2-ii, 3-i, 4-iii

D) 1-iii, 2-iv 3-ii, 4-i

Ans. (A)

Explanation:
India has enacted several environmental laws to ensure biodiversity conservation, pollution control, and ecosystem protection:

1. Wildlife Protection Act (1972): Provides comprehensive protection for wildlife, including flora, fauna, and their habitats. It established wildlife sanctuaries, national parks, and conservation reserves.
2. Water (Prevention & Control of Pollution) Act (1974): Enacted to prevent and control water pollution and maintain or restore the quality of India’s water bodies.
3. Environment Protection Act (1986): Enacted after the Bhopal Gas Tragedy (1984), this umbrella act empowers the central government to protect and improve environmental quality.
4. Biological Diversity Act (2002): Aimed at conserving biodiversity, promoting its sustainable use, and ensuring fair sharing of benefits arising from biological resources.

Correct Matching:

• 1 → iv (1972)
• 2 → ii (1986)
• 3 → iii (2002)
• 4 → i (1974)

Correct Answer:(A) 1-iv, 2-ii, 3-iii, 4-i

31. Which of the following missions cover the National Action Plan on Climatic Change (NAPCC)?

i. National Solar Mission

ii. National Mission for a Green India

iii. National Green Hydrogen Mission

iv. National Mission on Sustainable Habitat

v. National Bio-Fuel Mission

Select the correct answer using the code given below:

A) i, ii and iv

B) i, iii and v

C) ii, iv and v

D) All the above

Ans. (A)

Missions under the National Action Plan on Climate Change (NAPCC)

Explanation:
Launched in 2008, the NAPCC outlines India’s strategy to combat climate change through eight core missions.

Included Missions:

• (i) National Solar Mission: Focuses on promoting solar energy to reduce reliance on fossil fuels.
• (ii) National Mission for a Green India: Aims to enhance forest cover and ecosystem services to counteract climate change.
• (iv) National Mission on Sustainable Habitat: Works towards making cities more sustainable by improving waste management, energy efficiency, and urban planning.

Not Included in NAPCC:

• (iii) National Green Hydrogen Mission — Launched later (2023) as part of India’s renewable energy push but not under NAPCC.
• (v) National Bio-Fuel Mission — Though it promotes clean energy, it is not officially a part of NAPCC.

Correct Answer:(A) i, ii and iv

32. Which of the following are UNESCO’s natural world heritage sites in India?

i. Kaziranga national park

ii. Manas wildlife sanctuary

iii. Rann of Kutch Wildlife Sanctuary

iv. Western Ghats

Select the correct answer using the code given below:

A) i, ii and iii

B) i, ii and iv

C) ii, iii and iv

D) All the above

Ans. (B)

Explanation:
UNESCO designates sites as World Heritage based on their cultural, historical, scientific, or natural significance. In India, several natural sites are recognized for their biodiversity and ecological importance.

1. Kaziranga National Park (Assam): Recognized in 1985, it is home to the largest population of the Indian one-horned rhinoceros and is renowned for its rich biodiversity.
2. Manas Wildlife Sanctuary (Assam): Inscribed in 1985, it is both a Tiger Reserve and a Biosphere Reserve, known for its rare and endangered species.
3. Rann of Kutch Wildlife Sanctuary (Gujarat):Not a UNESCO World Heritage Site. Though ecologically significant, especially for flamingos and wild asses, it hasn’t received UNESCO designation.
4. Western Ghats (Maharashtra, Kerala, Karnataka, Tamil Nadu): Listed in 2012 for its exceptional biodiversity and being one of the world’s “hottest” biodiversity hotspots.

33. Consider the following statements:

Statement 1: The extinction of a keystone species can lead to ecosystem

Statement 2: Climate change is solely future concern and has no current effects.

Statement 3: Protected areas are essential for conserving biodiversity.

Statement 4: Ozone depletion directly contributes to global warming.

Which of the statement/s given above is/are correct?

A) 1 and 3 only

B) 2 only

C) 1, 2, and 4

D) 1 and 4 only

Ans. (A)

Explanation:

• Statement 1:✅Correct — A keystone species has a disproportionately large effect on its ecosystem. Its extinction can disrupt food webs and ecological balance (e.g., sea otters in kelp forests).
• Statement 2:❌Incorrect — Climate change is already affecting ecosystems globally through rising temperatures, sea-level rise, and extreme weather events.
• Statement 3:✅Correct — Protected areas (e.g., national parks, wildlife sanctuaries) are essential for safeguarding habitats, species, and ecological processes.

Statement 4:❌Incorrect — Ozone depletion leads to increased UV radiation but does not directly cause global warming. Global warming is primarily driven by greenhouse gases like CO₂.

34. Consider the following statements:

Statement1: Climate change is influenced by both natural and anthropogenic factors.

Statement 2: The Amazon rainforest is often referred to as the “lungs of the Earth”.

Statement 3: Current extinction rates are comparable to historical background rates.

Statement4: Urbanization can negatively impact local biodiversity.

The correct statement/s is/are:

A) 1 and 3 only

B) 2 and 4

C) 3 only

D) 1, 2, and 4.

Ans. (D)

Explanation:

• Statement 1:✅Correct — Climate changeis driven by both natural phenomena (volcanic eruptions, solar cycles) and anthropogenic factors (fossil fuel combustion, deforestation).
• Statement 2:✅Correct — The Amazon Rainforest is often called the “lungs of the Earth” as it produces vast amounts of oxygen and absorbs significant carbon dioxide.
• Statement 3:❌Incorrect — Current extinction rates far exceed historical background rates due to human activities like habitat destruction and pollution.

Statement 4:✅Correct — Urbanization leads to habitat fragmentation, pollution, and the introduction of invasive species, all of which harm local biodiversity.

35. Consider the following statements:

Statement I: Organisms that can tolerate and survive in a wide range of temperatures are called stenothermal.

Statement II: Generally, humans are considered stenothermal.

The correct answer is:

A) Only Statement I is correct

B) Only Statement II is correct

C) Both statement I and Statement Il are correct

D) Neither statement I nor Statement II are correct

Ans. (D)

Explanation:

• Statement I:❌Incorrect — Organisms that survive within a narrow temperature range are called stenothermal (e.g., corals). Those that tolerate a wide temperature range are termed eurythermal (e.g., humans, cockroaches).
• Statement II:❌Incorrect — Humans are eurythermal, capable of adapting to diverse climates using behavioral and technological solutions.

36. Consider the following statements regarding the eutrophication of the lake:

i. It is an anthropogenic process and does not occur naturally.

ii. Nitrate and phosphate are the main contaminants for eutrophication.

The correct answer/s is/are:

A) і only

B) ii only

C) Both i and ii

D) Neither i nor ii

Ans. (B)

Explanation:

• Statement i:❌Incorrect — Eutrophication is a process that can occur both naturally and due to anthropogenic activities. Natural eutrophication happens over centuries as lakes age, but human activities like agricultural runoff accelerate it, leading to rapid nutrient enrichment.

Statement ii:✅Correct — Nitrates (NO₃⁻) and phosphates (PO₄³⁻) from fertilizers, detergents, and sewage are the main contributors to eutrophication. These nutrients promote excessive algal growth, leading to oxygen depletion in water bodies.

37. Consider the following statements:

Assertion (A): Carbon dioxide, Methane and Nitrous oxide are considered greenhouse gases.

Reason (R): Greenhouse gas absorbs short-wave radiation from the sun and is transparent to long-wave radiation from Earth.

Choose the correct answer:

A) A and R are both correct and R is the correct explanation of A

B) A and R are both correct and R is NOT the correct explanation of A

C) A is correct, but R is NOT correct

D) A is NOT correct, but R is correct

Ans. (C)

Explanation:

• Assertion (A):✅Correct — Carbon dioxide (CO₂), Methane (CH₄), and Nitrous oxide (N₂O) are major greenhouse gases that trap heat in Earth’s atmosphere, contributing to global warming.
• Reason (R):❌Incorrect — Greenhouse gases absorb long-wave infrared radiation emitted by Earth, not short-wave solar radiation. They allow sunlight to pass through but trap the heat reflected back from Earth’s surface.

38. Consider the following statements regarding the productivity of an ecosystem:

i. Gross primary productivity is the rate of formation of organic matter by consumers.

Ii. Net primary productivity is the variable biomes for the consumption of heterotrophs.

The correct answer/s is/are:

A i only

B) ii only

C) Both i and ii

D) Neither i nor ii

Ans. (B)

Explanation:

• Statement i:❌Incorrect — Gross Primary Productivity (GPP) is the rate at which producers (like plants) convert solar energy into chemical energy through photosynthesis. It does not involve consumers.
• Statement ii:✅Correct — Net Primary Productivity (NPP) is the energy remaining after plants use some for respiration. It represents the energy available to heterotrophs (consumers) and varies across ecosystems (e.g., forests have higher NPP than deserts).

39. Consider the following statements:

Statement-I: Buckyballs, also known as fullerenes, are fascinating carbon molecules that resemble soccer balls.

Statement-II: Fly Ash from thermal power plants contain buckyballs

Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements?

A) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II explains Statement-I

B) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II does not explain Statement-l

C) Statement-I is correct but Statement-II is incorrect

D) Statement-I is incorrect but Statement-II is correct

Ans. (C)

Explanation:

• Statement I:✅Correct — Buckyballs or Fullerenes (C₆₀) are spherical carbon molecules shaped like soccer balls. They have unique chemical properties and applications in materials science and nanotechnology.
• Statement II:❌Incorrect — Fly ash from thermal power plants mainly contains silica, alumina, iron oxides, and unburnt carbon but does not naturally contain buckyballs. Fullerenes are produced under specific conditions, like in laboratory settings or during high-energy events.

40. Which of the following statement(s) is/are correct with respect to   possible effects of solar storms on earth?

i . Disruption of GPS navigation and satellite communications

ii. Destruction of power grids

iii. Tsunamis at equatorial regions

iv. Intense auroras all over the Earth

Select the answer using the code given below.

A) i and ii only

B) i and iii only

C) i, ii and iii only

D) i, ii and iv only

Ans. (D)

Explanation:

• i.✅Disruption of GPS and Satellite Communications: Solar storms release charged particles that interfere with satellite signals, affecting GPS, radio, and communication networks.
• ii.✅Destruction of Power Grids: Strong solar storms can induce electric currents in power lines, leading to blackouts (e.g., the 1989 Quebec blackout).
• iii.❌Incorrect — Solar storms do not cause tsunamis. Tsunamis result from seismic activity like earthquakes, not space weather.
• iv.✅Intense Auroras: Solar storms trigger auroras (Northern/Southern Lights) by interacting with Earth’s magnetic field. During strong storms, auroras can be seen at lower latitudes than usual.

41. Consider the following features:

i. Blockchain integration

ii. Centralized platform

iii. User ownership and control

iv. Interoperability

Which of the above are characteristics of Web 3.0?

A) ii and iii only

B) i, ii and iii only

C) i, iii and iv only

D) ii, iii and iv only

Ans. (C)

Explanation:
Web 3.0, often called the Decentralized Web, emphasizes transparency, user control, and advanced interactivity, driven by blockchain technology and AI.

• i. Blockchain Integration✅ — A core feature of Web 3.0. Blockchain enables decentralization, immutability, and secure transactions, fostering trustless systems.
• ii. Centralized Platform❌ — Web 3.0 promotes decentralization, moving away from centralized control seen in Web 2.0 platforms.
• iii. User Ownership and Control✅ — Web 3.0 empowers users by giving them control over their data and digital assets through decentralized identities and smart contracts.
• iv. Interoperability✅ — Web 3.0 encourages seamless interaction between platforms and applications using decentralized protocols and technologies like cross-chain communication.

42 Urea Gold’ is a mixture of:

A) Nitrogen and gold X

B) Phosphorous and gold X

C) Nitrogen and Sulphur

D) Potassium and Phosphorous

Ans. (C)

Explanation:
Urea Gold is a fertilizer designed to improve nitrogen efficiency and reduce nitrogen loss in soils.

• It is a mixture of Nitrogen (N) and Sulphur (S).
• The addition of sulphur enhances nutrient uptake and promotes balanced crop growth.

This combination improves soil fertility and reduces nitrogen leaching into water bodies.

43. Identify the correct match:

Salt                                                        Chemical formula

1. Washing soda                                       Na₂CO₃

2. Baking soda                                           NaHCO₃

3. Gypsum                                                 CaSO₄, 2H₂O

4. Plaster of Paris                                      CaSO₄, 1/2H₂0

How many match/es is/are correct?

A) Only one match

B) Only two matches

C) Only three matches

D) All the four matches

Ans. (D)

Ans. (D)

Explanation:

1. Washing Soda (Na₂CO₃):✅Correct — Known as sodium carbonate, used in cleaning agents and water softening.
2. Baking Soda (NaHCO₃):✅Correct — Sodium bicarbonate, commonly used in baking, cleaning, and as an antacid.
3. Gypsum (CaSO₄·2H₂O):✅Correct — A naturally occurring mineral used in agriculture and construction.
4. Plaster of Paris (CaSO₄·½H₂O):✅Correct — Made by heating gypsum, used in construction and making molds.

44. Which of the following statement(s) is/are correct regarding the Global innovation index 2024-

i. Switzerland maintained its position as the global leader in innovation

ii. India ranked 39th in the Global Innovation Index 2024

iii. India secured the top position among lower middle-income countries

iv. Singapore moves up to second position, leading in several innovation indicators

Select the answer using the code given below.

A) i, ii and iii only

B) i, ii and iv only

C) i, iii and iv only

D) ii, iii and iv only

Ans. (A)

Explanation:

• i. Switzerland maintained its position as the global leader in innovation✅ — Switzerland has consistently topped the Global Innovation Index for its strong R&D, patent filings, and high-quality institutions.
• ii. India ranked 39th in the Global Innovation Index 2024✅ — India has been steadily climbing the ranks, driven by advancements in ICT services, innovation ecosystems, and scientific publications.
• iii. India secured the top position among lower middle-income countries✅ — India has been leading in innovation within this income group for several years due to its strong start-up ecosystem and investments in R&D.
• iv. Singapore moves up to second position, leading in several innovation indicators❌ — While Singapore consistently ranks high, the second position in 2024 was not attributed to it.

45. Consider the following statements regarding Sickle cell anaemia:

i. It is caused due to genetic mutation.

ii. It affects the shape of red blood cells and causes the inability to carry oxygen.

iii. It can be treated by bone marrow or stem cell transplantation.

iv. Sick Cell Disease causes the body to make normal haemoglobin

The incorrect statement/s is/are:

A) i only

B) iii only

C) ii and iii only

D) iv only

Ans. (D)

Explanation:
Sickle Cell Anaemia is a genetic blood disorder caused by a mutation in the HBB gene, which affects haemoglobin production.

• i. It is caused due to genetic mutation✅ — Correct. Sickle Cell Anaemia results from a mutation in the gene that instructs the body to produce haemoglobin, leading to the formation of abnormal haemoglobin (HbS).
• ii. It affects the shape of red blood cells and causes the inability to carry oxygen✅ — Correct. In this disorder, red blood cells become sickle-shaped (crescent-like), making them rigid and sticky, reducing their ability to efficiently carry oxygen.
• iii. It can be treated by bone marrow or stem cell transplantation✅ — Correct. Bone marrow or stem cell transplants are currently the only potential cures but are not always feasible due to donor compatibility and risks involved.
• iv. Sickle Cell Disease causes the body to make normal haemoglobin❌ — Incorrect. In Sickle Cell Disease, the body produces abnormal haemoglobin (HbS), not normal haemoglobin (HbA), which leads to the sickling of red blood cells.

46. Bletchley Declaration, 2023 was signed by which of the following countries among others?

i. United Kingdom

ii. South Korea

iii. Russia

iv. China

Select the correct answer using the code given below.

A) i and ii only

B) i and iii only

C) i and iv only

D) All of these

Ans. (C)

Explanation:
The Bletchley Declaration was signed during the AI Safety Summit 2023 held in the United Kingdom, aiming to establish global cooperation on the safety and regulation of Artificial Intelligence (AI).

• i. United Kingdom✅ — The host of the AI Safety Summit and a key signatory.
• ii. South Korea❌ — Not among the initial signatories of the Bletchley Declaration.
• iii. Russia❌ — Russia was not part of the declaration.
• iv. China✅ — China was notably included among the signatories, highlighting the global nature of the agreement despite geopolitical tensions.

47. As per the Jammu and Kashmir Budget 2024-25, around how many Megawatt(M rooftop solar power plants are planned to be installed on the government buildings by the Science and Technology Department?

A) 1 MW

B) 2 MW

C) 3 MW

D) 4 MW

Ans. (D)

Explanation:
As part of its push towards sustainable energy and reducing carbon emissions, the Jammu and Kashmir government has planned to install rooftop solar power plants on government buildings.

• The budget allocated by the Science and Technology Department outlines the installation of 4 Megawatts (MW) of rooftop solar power capacity.
• This move supports the region’s renewable energy goals and reduces reliance on conventional power sources.

48. Which of the following infections DOES NOT spread through direct contact or close proximity with the infected person? Select the most appropriate option from the option given below:

(A) Monkeypox (Mpox)

B) SarsCov2 infection

C) Influenza virus infection

D) Chikungunya

Ans. (D)

Explanation:
Understanding the transmission pathways of different viruses helps in effective prevention.

• (A) Monkeypox (Mpox)✅ — Spreads through close physical contact, including skin-to-skin contact, respiratory droplets, and contact with contaminated materials.
• (B) SARS-CoV-2 (COVID-19)✅ — Transmits via respiratory droplets, aerosols, and close contact.
• (C) Influenza Virus Infection✅ — Spreads through respiratory droplets from coughing, sneezing, or talking, and via contaminated surfaces.
• (D) Chikungunya❌ — DOES NOT spread through direct human contact. It is a vector-borne disease transmitted by the bite of infected Aedes mosquitoes. Human-to-human transmission through proximity or contact is not possible.

49. Noble Prize for Physics 2024 awarded for the development of:

A) Nuclear fusion reaction

B) Quantum generator

C) Blockchain

D) Foundational work in Machine Learning using Artificial Neural Networks

Ans. (D)

Explanation:
The Nobel Prize in Physics 2024 recognized significant contributions to the field of Artificial Intelligence (AI), particularly focusing on:

• Foundational work in Machine Learning using Artificial Neural Networks (ANNs).
• This research has advanced modern AI applications, enabling deep learning models that power technologies like image recognition, natural language processing, and self-driving cars.

Incorrect Options:

• (A) Nuclear fusion reaction — Not awarded this year.
• (B) Quantum generator — Not relevant to the 2024 prize.

(C) Blockchain — A technological innovation but unrelated to the 2024 Physics Nobel.

50. Which of the following materials is widely used to make quantum dots for biologic applications?

A) Silicon

B) Cadmium selenide

C) Gallium arsenide

D) Germanium

Ans. (B)

Explanation:
Quantum Dots (QDs) are nanoscale semiconductor particles that exhibit unique optical and electronic properties, making them valuable in medical imaging and diagnostics.

• (B) Cadmium Selenide (CdSe)✅ — The most widely used material for quantum dots in biological applications due to its:
  • High fluorescence efficiency
  • Tunable emission spectra
  • Compatibility with bioimaging techniques

Why Others Are Incorrect:

• (A) Silicon — Not commonly used for biological quantum dots due to poor optical properties.
• (C) Gallium Arsenide — Used in electronics but less suitable for bioimaging.
• (D) Germanium — Not ideal for making efficient quantum dots.

51. Match the following countries based on their ranks as per the medal tally in the Paris Olympics, 2024:

Countries   Rank

1. Australia i. Rank one

2. China ii. Rank two

3. Japan iii. Rank three

4. France iv. Rank four

v. Rank Five

Choose the correct answer:

A) 1-iv, 2-ii, 3-iii, 4-v

B) 1-ii, 2-1 3-iii, 4-v

C) 1-ii, 2-iii, 3-i, 4-iv

D) 1-iii, 2- iv, 3-1, 4-ii

Ans. A

Explanation:

The final medal tally of the 2024 Paris Olympics is as follows:

1. United States: 40 golds, 126 total medals
2. China: 40 golds, 91 total medals
3. Japan: 20 golds, 45 total medals
4. Australia: 18 golds, 53 total medals
5. France: 16 golds, 64 total medals

Therefore, the correct matching is:

• Australia: Rank four
• China: Rank two
• Japan: Rank three
• France: Rank five

This corresponds to option A: 1-iv, 2-ii, 3-iii, 4-v.

52. Consider the following statements:

Assertion (A): The BRICS Summit in year (2024) was hosted by Russia.

Reasoning (R): The motto of the BRICS Summit 2024 was “Strengthening Multilateralism for Just Global Development and Security.”

Choose the correct answer:

A) A is true but R is false

B) Both A and Rare true and R is the correct explanation of A

C) A is false but R is true

D) Both A and R are true but R is not the correct explanation of A

Ans. (B)

Explanation:

In 2024, Russia hosted the BRICS Summit in Kazan from October 22 to 24. The theme of the summit was “Strengthening Multilateralism for Just Global Development and Security.” This theme reflects the group’s commitment to promoting a multipolar world order and enhancing cooperation among member countries. Therefore, both the assertion and the reasoning are true, and the reasoning correctly explains the assertion.

53. Arrange the general elections in following Asian countries in 2024 in the correct chronological order:

i. Indonesia Aus

ii. India

iii. Pakistan Juve

iv. Kuwait

v. Jordan

Choose the correct order:

A) iv, iii, i, v, ii

B) i, iv, iii, v, ii

C) iii, i, iv, ii, v

D) ii, iv, v, i, iii

Ans. (C)

Explanation:

In 2024, several Asian countries held general elections. The chronological order of these elections is as follows:

1. Pakistan: January 2024
2. Indonesia: February 2024
3. Kuwait: May 2024
4. India: June 2024
5. Jordan: August 2024

Therefore, the correct chronological order is iii (Pakistan), i (Indonesia), iv (Kuwait), ii (India), v (Jordan), which corresponds to option C.

54. Arrange the following international events held in year 2024 m the correct chronological order:

i. World Biodiversity Summit (Cali)

ii. World Climate Summit (New York)

iii. World Climate Summit (Baku)

iv. World Biodiversity Summit (New York)

v.  Climate Investment Summit (London)

Choose the correct order:

A) iv, iii, i, v, ii

B) i, iv, iii, v, ii

C) v, ii, iv, i, iii

D) ii, iv, v, i, iii

Ans. (c)

In 2024, several significant international events focusing on climate and biodiversity were held. Arranging them in chronological order provides a clear perspective on the global efforts throughout the year:

1. Climate Investment Summit (London): This event took place on June 27, 2024, in London. The summit aimed to mobilize capital for climate solutions, bringing together investors, policymakers, and innovators to accelerate climate action.
2. World Climate Summit (New York): Held during New York Climate Week, the World Climate Summit convened leaders from various sectors to discuss and promote actionable climate solutions.
3. World Biodiversity Summit (New York): This summit occurred on September 26, 2024, alongside the 79th session of the UN General Assembly and Climate Week NYC. The event focused on bridging climate and biodiversity agendas, fostering partnerships, and promoting nature-positive investments.
4. World Biodiversity Summit (Cali): Scheduled to align with the UNCBD COP16 in Cali, Colombia, this summit continued the dialogue on biodiversity conservation and sustainable practices.
5. World Climate Summit (Baku): Taking place during COP29 in Baku, Azerbaijan, from November 11 to 22, 2024, this summit addressed pressing climate issues amidst challenging geopolitical contexts.

Therefore, the correct chronological order of these events is:

1. Climate Investment Summit (London)
2. World Climate Summit (New York)
3. World Biodiversity Summit (New York)
4. World Biodiversity Summit (Cali)
5. World Climate Summit (Baku)

55. Which of the following statements about the Asia Pacific Ministerial Conference on Civil Aviation are correct?

i. The first Asia Pacific Ministerial Conference was held in Beijing In 2018.

ii. The second Asia Pacific Ministerial Conference was held in New Delhi in 2024

iii. The second conference was co-hosted by the International Civil Aviation Organization and India’s Ministry of Civil Aviation.

iv. The third Asia Pacific Ministerial Conference will be held in Ankara in 2030.

Choose the correct answer given below:

A) i and ii only

B) i, ii and iii only

C) i, ii, iii and i

D) i and iv only

Ans. (B)

The Asia Pacific Ministerial Conference on Civil Aviation (APACMC) serves as a pivotal platform for aviation leaders across the Asia-Pacific region to collaborate on enhancing civil aviation policies. The inaugural conference was convened in Beijing, China, from January 31 to February 1, 2018. This event was organized by the International Civil Aviation Organization (ICAO) and resulted in the adoption of the “Beijing Declaration,” emphasizing the critical role of air transportation in socio-economic development and the necessity for regional cooperation to bolster aviation safety, security, and sustainability.

The second iteration of the APACMC took place in New Delhi, India, on September 11-12, 2024. Co-hosted by ICAO and India’s Ministry of Civil Aviation, this conference aimed to build upon the foundations laid in Beijing. Delegates engaged in discussions to formulate strategies for a resilient and dynamic Asia-Pacific air transport system in the post-pandemic era. A significant outcome of this conference was the “Delhi Declaration,” which outlined a collective vision for managing aviation safety and sustainability in the region.

Regarding future conferences, there is no official information confirming that the third Asia Pacific Ministerial Conference on Civil Aviation will be held in Ankara in 2030. Therefore, statement iv lacks substantiation.

56. Cancer Moonshot initiative’, recently highlighted in news, is launched by which of the following countries?

A) China, United Kingdom, Canada, and France

B) The United States of America, United Kingdom, Indonesia, and Malaysia

C) India, Russia, France, and Japan

D) The United States of America, Australia, India, and Japan

Ans. (D)

The “Cancer Moonshot” initiative, recently highlighted in the news, is a collaborative effort launched by the United States, Australia, India, and Japan—collectively known as the Quad countries. This initiative aims to reduce the burden of cancer in the Indo-Pacific region, starting with a focus on preventing and treating cervical cancer, a largely preventable disease that remains a significant health challenge in the area.

Each member country has committed to specific actions under this initiative:

• United States: The U.S. plans to support HPV vaccine expert exchanges with Indo-Pacific partners starting in 2025 and expand global cancer research and training in the region.
• Australia: Australia has pledged to increase its funding commitments to the Elimination Partnership in the Indo-Pacific for Cervical Cancer (EPICC) to AUD $29.6 million, aiming to reach more women and support partner organizations working on cervical cancer elimination.
• India: India will share technical expertise in digital health through its National Non-Communicable Disease portal and provide HPV sampling kits, detection tools, and cervical cancer vaccines worth $7.5 million to the Indo-Pacific region.
• Japan: Japan is providing medical equipment, including CT and MRI scanners, worth approximately $27 million to countries in the Indo-Pacific region and has committed approximately $75 million from FY2019 to FY2023 to combat cancer in the area.

This collaborative effort aims to strengthen the overall cancer care ecosystem in the Indo-Pacific by improving health infrastructure, expanding research collaborations, building data systems, and providing greater support for cancer prevention, detection, treatment, and care.

57. The Indian Institute of Technology Delhi (IIT Delhi) recently opened its overseas campus at-

A) Muscat

B) Abu Dhabi

C) Dubai

D) Sharjah

Ans. (B)

The Indian Institute of Technology Delhi (IIT Delhi) inaugurated its first international campus in Abu Dhabi in September 2024. The inaugural batch comprises 52 undergraduate students enrolled in Computer Science and Engineering and Energy Engineering programs. This initiative is part of a broader vision to enhance educational collaboration between India and the United Arab Emirates.

58. Which of the following statements about “Development of Semiconductors and Display Manufacturing Ecosystems in India” are correct?

i. Three semiconductors’ units will be established under this programme.

ii. All the three units will be located in the state of Assam.

iii. These units will generate direct employment for one lakh people.

iv. Two units will be established in Gujarat and one unit in Assam.

Choose the correct answer given below:

A) i and ii only

B) i, ii and iii only

C) i, ii, iii and iv

D) i and iv only

Ans. (D)

Explanation :

Regarding India’s semiconductor manufacturing ecosystem, Tata Electronics is establishing two semiconductor units: a fabrication facility in Gujarat and an assembly and testing unit in Assam. The Gujarat facility represents a significant investment of approximately ₹91,000 crore (US$10.84 billion), while the Assam unit involves an investment of around ₹27,000 crore (US$3.21 billion). These projects are expected to generate substantial employment opportunities, with the Assam plant alone projected to create 27,000 jobs, including 15,000 direct positions and 12,000 indirect roles.

59. Match the following books and authors shortlisted for Booker Prize 2024:

Books Authors

1. Held i. Charlotte Wood

2. Creation Lake ii. Rachel Kushner

3. Orbital iii. Samantha Harvey

4. James  iv. Anne Michaels

v. Percival Everett

Choose the correct answer:

A) 1-iv, 2-ii, 3-iii, 4-v

B) 1-ii, 2-i, 3-iii, 4-v

C) 1-ii, 2-iii, 3-1, 4-iv

D) 1-iii, 2- iv, 3-i, 4-ii

Ans. (A)

The 2024 Booker Prize shortlist features a diverse array of authors and novels. Notably, five out of the six shortlisted authors are women, marking the highest female representation in the prize’s 55-year history.

The correct matching of books to their authors is:

• “Held” – Anne Michaels
• “Creation Lake” – Rachel Kushner
• “Orbital” – Samantha Harvey
• “James” – Percival Everett

Therefore, the correct answer is: A) 1-iv, 2-ii, 3-iii, 4-v

60. Match the following state/UT-wise list of Gl tagged handloom products of India:

GI Tagged Handloom Products   State/UT

1. Tangaliya Shawl i. Nagaland

2. Chakheshang Shawl ii. Gujarat

3. Habaspuri Saree and Products iii. Odisha

4. Kani Shawl iv Jammu and Kashmir

Choose the correct answer:

A) 1-iv, 2-ii, 3-iii, 4-i

B) 1-ii, 2-1, 3-iii, 4-iv

C) 1-ii, 2-iii, 3-i, 4-iv

D) 1-iii, 2-iv, 3-i, 4-ii

Ans. (B)

Geographical Indication (GI) tags are used to denote products that originate from a specific geographical location and possess unique qualities or a reputation attributable to that origin. In India, several handloom products have received GI tags, linking them to their respective states or Union Territories.

Matching GI Tagged Handloom Products with Their States/UTs:

1. Tangaliya Shawl: This traditional shawl is indigenous to Gujarat. The Tangaliya weaving technique is practiced by the Dangasia community in the Surendranagar district of Gujarat. The shawl is known for its unique weaving pattern, which creates bead-like designs on the fabric.
2. Chakhesang Shawl: Originating from Nagaland, the Chakhesang Shawl is a distinctive handloom product of the Chakhesang tribe. These shawls are characterized by their vibrant colors and intricate patterns, reflecting the rich cultural heritage of the tribe.
3. Habaspuri Saree and Products: These sarees hail from Odisha and are named after the village of Habaspur in the Kalahandi district. Woven from fine cotton or silk, Habaspuri sarees feature traditional motifs inspired by nature and temple architecture.
4. Kani Shawl: The Kani Shawl is a renowned handloom product from Jammu and Kashmir. Woven using the twill tapestry technique, these shawls are celebrated for their intricate designs and luxurious texture, often crafted from fine pashmina wool.

Correct Matching:

• Tangaliya Shawl: Gujarat
• Chakhesang Shawl: Nagaland
• Habaspuri Saree and Products: Odisha
• Kani Shawl: Jammu and Kashmir

61. Which of the following statements about the movie “Santosh” are correct?

i. The Movie premiered at the 77th Cannes Film Festival 2024.

ii. The Movie is Britain’s Oscar entry in the international feature category.

iii. The Movie is India’s Oscar entry in the international feature category.

iv. The Movie is directed by an Indian Director Sandhya Suri.

Choose the correct answer given below:

A) i and ii Only

B) i, ii and iii Only

C) i, ii, iii and iv

D) i and iv Only

Ans. (A)

Explanation:

• Statement i: Correct. The movie “Santosh” premiered at the 77th Cannes Film Festival in 2024, marking its international debut.
• Statement ii: Correct. “Santosh”was selected as Britain’s Oscar entry in the International Feature Film category, as the director Sandhya Suri holds British citizenship.
• Statement iii: Incorrect. The film is not India’s Oscar entry. Despite having an Indian director, it was submitted under Britain’s name.
• Statement iv: Correct. “Santosh”is directed by Sandhya Suri, who is of Indian origin but works under the British film industry.

62. Match the following edition of India-Kazakhstan Joint Military Exercise the venue of the exercises:

Joint Military Exercise    Venue

i. KAZIND-2024 Auli

ii. KAZIND-2023 Otar

iii. KAZIND-2022 Aisha Bibi

iv. KAZIND-2021 Umroi

How many pairs given above are correct?

A) Only one pair

B) Only two pairs

C) Only three pairs

D) All four pairs

Ans. (B)

Explanation:

• i. KAZIND-2024 — Auli:✅ Correct. The 2024 edition was held in Auli, Uttarakhand.
• ii. KAZIND-2023 — Otar:✅ Correct. The 2023 exercise took place in Otar, Kazakhstan.
• iii. KAZIND-2022 — Aisha Bibi:❌ Incorrect. The 2022 edition was held at Umroi, Meghalaya, not Aisha Bibi.
• iv. KAZIND-2021 — Umroi:❌ Incorrect. The 2021 edition was conducted at Aisha Bibi, Kazakhstan, not Umroi.

Correct Pairs:

• KAZIND-2024 — Auli
• KAZIND-2023 — Otar

63. Which of the following statements about the goals of Jammu and Kashmir Tourism Policy (2020) are correct?

i. To become the most preferred all-season tourist destination for both domestic and foreign tourists by 2025.

ii. To promote all kinds of tourism across Jammu and Kashmir.

iii. To promote city-wise events and festivals with a predefined calendar and promoting the same at national and international level.

iv. To generate employment of approximately 75,000 people per year.

Choose the correct answer given below:

A) i and ii only

B) i, ii and iii only

C) i, ii, iii and iv

D) i and iv only

Ans. (B)

Explanation:
The Jammu and Kashmir Tourism Policy (2020) focuses on sustainable growth and diversification of tourism. Let’s verify each statement:

• i. To become the most preferred all-season tourist destination for both domestic and foreign tourists by 2025:✅Correct. One of the core objectives is to establish Jammu and Kashmir as a top all-season destination by 2025, leveraging its natural beauty, adventure tourism, and cultural heritage.
• ii. To promote all kinds of tourism across Jammu and Kashmir:✅Correct. The policy encourages a variety of tourism forms—adventure, pilgrimage, eco-tourism, cultural, and leisure—to ensure balanced regional development.
• iii. To promote city-wise events and festivals with a predefined calendar and promoting the same at national and international level:✅Correct. The policy aims to organize city-wise festivals and cultural events, creating an annual calendar to attract tourists year-round and promote it on national and international platforms.

iv. To generate employment of approximately 75,000 people per year:❌Incorrect. While employment generation is a goal, the policy does not specify 75,000 jobs per year. It focuses more broadly on creating job opportunities through tourism growth without committing to exact numbers.

64. Consider the following statements:

Assertion (A): The Jammu and Kashmir Assembly Elections (2024) is the third such elections in the last one decade.

Reason (R): The Jammu and Kashmir Assembly Elections 2024 is the first election since 1947 that has reserved seats for SCs and STs

Choose the correct answer:

A) A is true but R is false

B) Both A and R are true, and R is the correct explanation of A

C) A is false but R is true

D) Both A and R are true, but R is not the correct explanation of A

Ans. (C)

Explanation:

• Assertion (A):❌False. The Jammu and Kashmir Assembly Elections (2024) are the first since the abrogation of Article 370 in 2019. The last assembly elections were held in 2014, making this the first election in nearly a decade, not the third.
• Reason (R):✅True. The 2024 Assembly Elections mark the first time since 1947 that seats have been reserved for Scheduled Castes (SCs) and Scheduled Tribes (STs) in the Jammu and Kashmir Assembly, following the 2019 constitutional changes.

Since A is false but R is true, the correct answer is (C).

65. In which year does ISRO plan to launch the first base module of the Bharatiya Antariksh Station?

A) 2032

B) 2030

C) 2029

D) 2028

Ans. (D)

Explanation:
The Indian Space Research Organisation (ISRO) has outlined its roadmap for setting up the BharatiyaAntariksh Station (India’s own space station). As per the current plan:

• The first base moduleis scheduled for launch in 2028, forming the foundation of the space station.
• This move is part of India’s long-term human spaceflight program, following the Gaganyaan mission.

The correct answer is (D) 2028.

66. Brihatkathamanjari was written by:

A) Gunadhya

B) Harisena

C) Lal Ded

D) Kshemendra

Ans. (D)

Explanation:

• Brihatkathamanjari was written by Kshemendra, an 11th-century Kashmiri poet and scholar.
• It is a Sanskrit abridgment of the now-lost Brihatkatha, originally written by Gunadhya in PaishachiPrakrit.
• Kshemendra’s version aimed to make the stories more accessible while preserving the essence of the original work.

The correct answer is (D) Kshemendra.

67. Which of the following is/are true about Ganas or Sanghas?

i. Most of the ganas were located in or near Himalayan foothills

ii. The ganas had greater vestiges of tribal organization

iii. Power in ganas was vested in the hands of an aristocracy

iv. The ganas were associated with Vaisyas

Choose the correct answer:

A) Only i is correct

B) Only i & ii are correct

C) Only i, ii, & iii are correct

D) Only i, ii & iv are correct

Ans. (C)

Explanation:
The Ganas or Sanghas were early republican forms of governance in ancient India, distinct from monarchies.

• i. Most of the ganas were located in or near Himalayan foothills:✅Correct. Many Ganas, such as the Lichchhavis and Shakyas, were based around the Himalayan foothills in regions like Bihar and eastern Uttar Pradesh.
• ii. The ganas had greater vestiges of tribal organization:✅Correct.Ganas retained tribal elements, with power often shared among clan elders and chiefs, reflecting collective decision-making.
• iii. Power in ganaswas vested in the hands of an aristocracy:✅Correct. Although the Ganas practiced a form of republican governance, power was usually concentrated among a group of elite families, making it an oligarchic structure.
• iv. The ganas were associated with Vaisyas:❌Incorrect. The Ganas were primarily linked to Kshatriyas (warrior clans), not Vaisyas. Many republics, like the Shakyas (to which Buddha belonged), were Kshatriya-dominated.

The correct answer is (C) i, ii, & iii.

68. Arrange the following in chronological order from earlier to later:

i. Northern Black Polished Ware (NBPW)

ii. Ochre Colored Pottery (OCP)

iii. Painted Grey Ware (PGW)

iv. Black and Red Ware (BRW).

Choose the correct answer:

A) iii, ii, iv, i

B) iv, iii, ii, i

C) ii, iv, iii, i

D) ii, iii, iv, i

Ans. (C)

Explanation:

1. Ochre Colored Pottery (OCP) – c. 2000–1500 BCE
   • Linked to the late Harappan period and found in the Ganga-Yamuna doab.
2. Black and Red Ware (BRW) – c. 1300–700 BCE
   • Associated with the Chalcolithic and early Iron Age cultures, especially in eastern India.
3. Painted Grey Ware (PGW) – c. 1200–600 BCE
   • Connected with the later Vedic period and early Mahajanapadas, mainly found in western Uttar Pradesh and Haryana.
4. Northern Black Polished Ware (NBPW) – c. 700–200 BCE
   • Linked with the urbanization phase during the Mauryan era and associated with trade and wealth.

Correct Order:
OCP → BRW → PGW → NBPW → Hence, the correct answer is (C) ii, iv, iii, i.

69. Which of the following statements is/are correct regarding the Indus Valley Civilization (IVC)?

i. Scribes were involved in the seal-making process of the civilization.

ii. The Great Bath of Mohenjodaro featured brick walls and a waterproof layer of natural tar.

iii. The people of IVC used iron ploughs in their agricultural practices.

Select the correct answer using the codes given below:

A) i and ii only

B) ii and iii only

C) i only

D) i, ii and iii

Ans. (A)

Explanation:

• i. Scribes were involved in the seal-making process of the civilization:✅Correct. The presence of inscriptions on seals, written in the Indus script, indicates the role of scribes in creating and authenticating seals for trade and administrative purposes.
• ii. The Great Bath of Mohenjodaro featured brick walls and a waterproof layer of natural tar:✅Correct. The Great Bath was a sophisticated structure with baked brick walls and a floor lined with bitumen (natural tar) to make it waterproof, highlighting advanced engineering.
• iii. The people of IVC used iron ploughs in their agricultural practices:❌Incorrect. The Indus Valley Civilization belonged to the Chalcolithic Age (Copper-Bronze Age) and did not use iron tools. Their ploughs were primarily wooden, and iron was introduced later during the Vedic period.

The correct answer is (A) i and ii only.

70. Consider the following statements with regard to the Rock Edicts of Ashoka:

i. References to many kinds of Mahamattas

ii. Pradesikas, Rajukas and yuktas were important officials at the district level

iii. Reference to city administration run by six committees of five members each

iv. References to pativedakas and pulisani

Which of the above statement(s) is/are correct?

A) i & il only

B) i & iii only

C) i, ii & iii only

D) i, ii & iv only

Ans. (D)

Explanation:
The Rock Edicts of Ashoka provide valuable insights into the administration, ethics, and governance during his reign.

• i. References to many kinds of Mahamattas:✅Correct.Ashoka appointed several types of Mahamattas (high-ranking officials) such as DhammaMahamattas (officers of morality) and Yuktas to oversee administration, welfare, and propagation of Dhamma.
• ii. Pradesikas, Rajukas, and Yuktas were important officials at the district level:✅Correct.
  • Pradesikas were responsible for district administration.
  • Rajukas handled judicial duties and land management.
  • Yuktas were involved in record-keeping and treasury management.
• iii. Reference to city administration run by six committees of five members each:❌Incorrect.This system was described by Megasthenes in his book Indica regarding the city administration of Pataliputra, not in Ashoka’s Rock Edicts.
• iv. References to Pativedakas and Pulisani:✅Correct.
  • Pativedakas acted as royal messengers, ensuring swift communication across the empire.
  • Pulisani were officials who assisted in administrative and security duties.

The correct answer is (D) i, ii &iv only.

71. Consider the following statements with regards to the iqta system:

1. The iqta was a territorial assignment given to administrative officers and nobles in lieu of the services they performed for the state

2. The holder of iqta was designated as muqti.

3. Originally Iqta was hereditary and the Muqti was entitled for the right of its ownership.

Which of the following statement(s) above is/are correct?

A) Only1 is correct

B) Only 1 and 2 are correct

C) Only I and are correct

D) All the 3 statements are correct

Ans. (B)

Explanation:
The Iqta system was a key administrative feature of medieval India, particularly under the Delhi Sultanate.

• 1. The iqta was a territorial assignment given to administrative officers and nobles in lieu of the services they performed for the state:✅Correct. The state granted land (Iqta) to nobles, military officers, and bureaucrats as a form of salary. They were responsible for collecting revenue and maintaining law and order.
• 2. The holder of iqtawas designated as muqti:✅Correct. The Muqti governed the Iqta, ensuring tax collection, troop maintenance, and loyalty to the Sultan.
• 3. OriginallyIqta was hereditary and the Muqti was entitled for the right of its ownership:❌Incorrect. The Iqta was initially non-hereditary. The Sultan retained the authority to transfer or remove a Muqti. Over time, some Iqtas became hereditary, but this was not the original design.

The correct answer is (B) Only 1 and 2 are correct

72. Consider the following statements:

Assertion (A): Atharva Veda, Mahabharata, Ramayana and Gita were translated into Persian during Akbar’s regime

Reason (R): Jahangir set up a translation bureau to translate works in Sanskrit, Arabic, Greek etc.

Choose the correct answer:

A) Both A & R are true, R is the correct explanation of A

B) Both A & R are true, R is NOT the correct explanation of A

C) A is true but R is false

D) R is true but A is false

Ans. (C)

Explanation:
During Akbar’s reign, there was a strong emphasis on cultural and literary exchanges, including the translation of significant Indian texts into Persian.

• Assertion (A): Atharva Veda, Mahabharata, Ramayana, and Gita were translated into Persian during Akbar’s regime:✅True. Akbar established a translation bureau (MaktabKhana) at FatehpurSikri, where several important works were translated. For instance:
  • The Mahabharatawas translated as Razmnama.
  • The Ramayana and parts of the Vedaswere also translated.
• Reason (R): Jahangir set up a translation bureau to translate works in Sanskrit, Arabic, Greek, etc.:❌False.The translation bureau was established by Akbar, not Jahangir. Jahangir continued literary patronage but didn’t found the bureau.

Since A is true but R is false, the correct answer is (C) A is true but R is false.

73. “The princes of the Bahman, maintained their superiority by valour only; for in power, wealth and extent of the country, the Rayas of Bijarnagar (Vijayanagar) greatly exceeded them”.

Who among the following made this statement?

A) Nicolo Conti

B) Ferishta

C) Abdur Razzaq

D) Nuniz

Ans. (B)

Explanation:
The statement highlights the contrast between the Bahmani Sultanate and the Vijayanagar Empire, emphasizing the Bahmani rulers’ reliance on military strength despite the Vijayanagar Empire’s greater wealth and territorial expanse.

• Ferishta (1560–1620), a Persian historian, authored the Tarikh-i-Ferishta (or Gulshan-i-Ibrahimi), which provides a detailed history of medieval India, especially the Deccan Sultanates, including the Bahmanis.
• In his work, Ferishta analyzed the power dynamics between the Bahmani Sultanate and the Vijayanagar Empire, noting that the Bahmani rulers maintained dominance primarily through valor and military strength, even though Vijayanagar surpassed them in wealth, population, and territory.

The correct answer is (B) Ferishta.

74. Match the following positions with their responsibilities in Maratha administration under Shivaji:

Position Responsibility

1. Peshwa i. Finance and General Administration

2: Sar-i-naubat ii. Master of ceremonies

3. Surnavis ii. Commander-in-Chief

4. Dabir iv. Royal correspondence

Choose the correct answer from below:

     1 2 3 4

A) i iii iv ii

B) i ii iv iii

C) iii ii i iv

D) i ii iii iv

Ans. (A)

Explanation:
The Maratha administration under Shivaji was highly organized, with distinct roles assigned to key officials.

1. Peshwa → i. Finance and General Administration✅
   • The Peshwa acted as the Prime Minister and was responsible for overall administration, finance, and policy-making.
2. Sar-i-Naubat → iii. Commander-in-Chief✅
   • Also known asSenapati, this official was the head of the military and managed all military affairs.
3. Surnavis → iv. Royal Correspondence✅
   • The Surnavis (or Chitnis) handled official documentation, correspondence, and maintained records for the court.
4. Dabir → ii. Master of Ceremonies✅
   • The Dabir managed diplomatic relations and court protocol, often acting as the master of ceremonies in royal functions.

The correct match is:1-i, 2-iii, 3-iv, 4-ii, leading to the answer (A).

75. Match the following battles with the year they were fought:

Battles Year

1. First Battle of Panipat i. 1526

2. Battle of Chausa  ii. 1527

3. Battle of Khanwa iii. 1540

4. Battle of Kanauj iv. 1539

Choose the correct answer from below:

     1 2 3 4

A) i iv ii iii

B) i iv iii ii

C) i ii iii iv

D) i iii iv ii

Ans. (A)

Explanation:

1. First Battle of Panipat (1526) → ✅
   • Fought between Babur and Ibrahim Lodi, marking the beginning of the Mughal Empire in India.
2. Battle of Chausa (1539) → ✅
   • Fought between Sher Shah Suri and Humayun, resulting in Humayun’s defeat.
3. Battle of Khanwa (1527) → ✅
   • Babur’s victory over Rana Sanga of Mewar solidified Mughal control in northern India.
4. Battle of Kanauj (1540) → ✅
   • Also known as the Battle of Bilgram, this battle saw Sher Shah Suri again defeat Humayun, forcing his exile.

Correct sequence:
1 – i (1526)
2 – iv (1539)
3 – ii (1527)
4 – iii (1540)

The correct answer is (A) i, iv, ii, iii.

76. Match the Indian musicians of the early twentieth century with their field of expertise:

Musician Field of expertise

1. Narayana Dasu i. Violin

2. Dhanammal ii. Harikatha

3. Allauddin Khan iii. Veena

4. Chowdiah iv. Sarod

v. Hindustani vocal

Choose the correct answer:

A) 1-i, 2-ii. 3-v, 4-iv

B) 1-ii, 2-i, 3-iii, 4-v

C) 1-iii, 2-i, 3-iv, 4-ii

D) 1-ii, 2-iii, 3-iv, 4-i

Ans. (D)

Explanation::

1. Narayana Dasu → ii. Harikatha✅
   • Narayana Dasu was renowned for his expertise in Harikatha, a form of storytelling that combines music, poetry, and philosophy, deeply rooted in South Indian traditions.
2. Dhanammal → iii. Veena✅
   • VeenaDhanammal (1867–1938) was a legendary Veena player and a key figure in Carnatic music. Her distinct style, known as the VeenaDhanammalBani, emphasized subtlety and melody.
3. Allauddin Khan → iv. Sarod✅
   • Allauddin Khan (1862–1972), the founder of the MaiharGharana, was a master of the Sarod. He trained iconic musicians like Ravi Shankar and Ali Akbar Khan.
4. Chowdiah → i. Violin✅
   • T. Chowdiah (1895–1967) was a renowned violinist from Karnataka. He is credited with designing the seven-stringed violin, enhancing its resonance for Carnatic concerts.

The correct match is 1-ii, 2-iii, 3-iv, 4-i, leading to the answer (D).

77. Which of the following is/are correct regarding the Charter Act of 1853?

i. The Act provided that the salaries of the members of the Board of Control, its secretary and other officials would be fixed by the East India Company and paid by the British government

ii. The number of members of the Court of Directors reduced from 24 to 18.

iii. 6 of the Court of Directors were to be nominated by the Crown.

Select the correct answer using the code given below:

A) i & ii only

B) i & iii only

C) ii & iii only

D) i, ii & iii only

Ans. (C)

Explanation:
The Charter Act of 1853 marked significant changes in the governance of British India:

• i. Salaries of the Board of Control and its officials fixed by the East India Company and paid by the British government:❌Incorrect. The East India Company paid the salaries, but the British government did not bear these costs.
• ii. The number of members of the Court of Directors reduced from 24 to 18:✅Correct. The Act streamlined administration by reducing the number of Court of Directors to 18, aiming for more efficient governance.
• iii. 6 of the Court of Directors were to be nominated by the Crown:✅Correct. Out of the 18 directors, 6 were nominated by the Crown, ensuring tighter British control over Indian affairs.

The correct answer is (C) ii & iii only.

78. Which of the following statement/s is/are correct regarding the Non-cooperation Movement?

i. The Congress in its annual session held in December 1920 at Allahabad adopted Gandhiji’s plan for non-cooperation movement against the government

2. The Congress gave the call for surrender of titles and honours

3.  Also an appeal was made to use swadeshi cloths.

Choose the correct answer using the code given below:

A) Only 1 is correct

B) Only 1 and 2 are correct

C) Only 2 & 3 are correct

D) 1, 2 and 3 are correct

Ans. (C)

Explanation:
The Non-Cooperation Movement (1920–1922) was a pivotal moment in India’s freedom struggle, led by Mahatma Gandhi.

• i. The Congress in its annual session held in December 1920 at Allahabad adopted Gandhiji’s plan for the Non-Cooperation Movement:❌Incorrect. The Congress adopted Gandhi’s plan at the Nagpur Session (December 1920), not Allahabad.
• ii. The Congress gave the call for surrender of titles and honours:✅Correct. Indians were urged to renounce titles like “Sir” and “Rai Bahadur” as a sign of protest against British rule.
• iii. An appeal was made to use swadeshi cloths:✅Correct. Promoting Swadeshi (indigenous goods) was a core strategy. The boycott of foreign goods and the promotion of Khadi became symbols of self-reliance and resistance.

The correct answer is (C) Only 2 & 3 are correct.

79. Consider the following statements with reference to The Lucknow Pact:

1. It offered a joint League-Congress scheme for constitutional reforms.

2. It demanded representative Government and dominion status for India.

3. However, it does not accept the principle of separate electorate and proportional representation in both imperial and provincial legislatures.

4. The Lucknow Pact was seen as a beacon of hope to Hindu-Muslim unity.

How many of the above statement/s is/are correct?

A) Only one

B) Only two

B) Only three

D) All the four

Ans. (C)

Explanation:
The Lucknow Pact (1916) was a historic agreement between the Indian National Congress and the All-India Muslim League, fostering Hindu-Muslim unity.

• 1. It offered a joint League-Congress scheme for constitutional reforms:✅Correct. Both parties agreed to demand greater self-governance and constitutional reforms from the British.
• 2. It demanded representative Government and dominion status for India:❌Incorrect. While it sought constitutional reforms and more Indian participation in governance, it did not explicitly demand dominion status.
• 3. It does not accept the principle of separate electorate and proportional representation in both imperial and provincial legislatures:❌Incorrect. The pact explicitly accepted separate electorates for Muslims, a key demand of the Muslim League.
• 4. The Lucknow Pact was seen as a beacon of hope to Hindu-Muslim unity:✅Correct. The pact marked a rare moment of unity between Hindus and Muslims in the national movement.

Only statements 1 and 4 are correct

80. Arrange the following events during the freedom struggle chronologically from earlier into later:

i. The Wavell Plan

ii. The Rajagopalachari Formula

iii The August Offer

iv. The Cabinet Mission

Choose the correct answer:

A) iii, iv, ii, i

B) iii, i, ii, iv

C) iii, ii, iv, i

D) iii, ii, i, iv

Ans. (D)

Explanation:

1. The August Offer (1940) → First✅
   • Announced by Viceroy Lord Linlithgow in August 1940, it offered Indians a greater role in governance but was rejected by Congress as it didn’t promise full independence.
2. The Rajagopalachari Formula (1944) → Second✅
   • Proposed by C. Rajagopalachari as a last attempt to avoid partition, it suggested that India would grant self-determination to Muslims post-independence.
3. The Wavell Plan (1945) → Third✅
   • Presented by Viceroy Lord Wavell, this plan aimed to form a new executive council with Indian representation. It failed at the Shimla Conference due to differences between Congress and the Muslim League.
4. The Cabinet Mission (1946) → Fourth✅
   • The British government sent a mission (Pethick-Lawrence, Stafford Cripps, and A.V. Alexander) to discuss India’s future. It proposed a united India with provincial autonomy but was eventually rejected by the Muslim League.

Correct chronological order:iii (August Offer), ii (Rajagopalachari Formula), i (Wavell Plan), iv (Cabinet Mission) So, The correct answer is (D).

81. Consider the following pairs:

Ramsar Wetland State

i. Bhoj Wetland 1. Gujarat

ii. Nalsarovar 2. Uttar Pradesh

iii. Kanjali 3. Madhya Pradesh

iv. Sandi Bird Sanctuary 4. Punjab

Which of the following options is correctly matched with regards to above given wetlands and states?

A) i-1, ii-3, iii-2, iv-4

B) i-3, ii-1, iii-4, iv-2

C) i-2, ii-3- iii-1, iv-4

D) i-4 ii-2, iii-3, iv-i

Ans. (B)

Explanation:
Ramsar Wetlands with their correct states:

1. Bhoj Wetland → Madhya Pradesh✅
   • Located in Bhopal, it consists of two lakes — Upper and Lower Bhoj — and is recognized for its biodiversity.
2. Nalsarovar → Gujarat✅
   • Situated near Ahmedabad, it is one of India’s largest bird sanctuaries and a significant Ramsar site.
3. Kanjali → Punjab✅
   • A man-made wetland in Punjab, it plays a crucial role in water conservation and bird migration.
4. Sandi Bird Sanctuary → Uttar Pradesh✅
   • Located in Hardoi district, it serves as a safe haven for migratory birds and is a designated Ramsar site.

Correct matches:

• i → 3 (Bhoj Wetland – Madhya Pradesh)
• ii → 1 (Nalsarovar – Gujarat)
• iii → 4 (Kanjali – Punjab)
• iv → 2 (Sandi Bird Sanctuary – Uttar Pradesh)

The correct answer is (B).

82.  Consider the following Particularly Vulnerable Tribal Groups (PVTGs):

i. Jarawa

ii. Sentinelese

iii. Onge

iv. Shom Pen

V. Chenchu

vi. Great Andamanies

How many of the above mentioned PVTGs belong to Andaman and Nicobar Island?

A) Only three

B) Only one

C) Only five

D Only four

Ans. (C)

Explanation:
Particularly Vulnerable Tribal Groups (PVTGs) in the Andaman and Nicobar Islands:

1. Jarawa → ✅Andaman Islands
2. Sentinelese → ✅North Sentinel Island (maintain complete isolation)
3. Onge → ✅Little Andaman
4. Shom Pen → ✅Nicobar Islands
5. Chenchu → ❌Andhra Pradesh & Telangana (not from Andaman and Nicobar)
6. Great Andamanese → ✅Andaman Islands

PVTGs from Andaman & Nicobar Islands:

• Jarawa
• Sentinelese
• Onge
• Shom Pen
• Great Andamanese

This makes it five PVTGs from the islands.
The correct answer is (C) Only five.

83. Consider the following pairs:

Cyclone Affected country/region

1. Yagi Indonesia

2. Beryl Caribbean

3. Mal Fiji

4. Kevin USA

Which of the above given pairs is/are correctly matched?

A) 1 and 3 only

B) 2 and 4 only

C) 1 and 4 only

D) 2 and 3 only

Ans. (D)

Explanation:

1. Yagi → ❌Japan & Philippines (Not Indonesia)
2. Beryl → ✅Caribbean (Formed in the Atlantic, impacted Caribbean nations)
3. Mal → ✅Fiji (Affected the Pacific region including Fiji)
4. Kevin → ❌Vanuatu & Solomon Islands (Not the USA)

Correct matches:

• Beryl → Caribbean
• Mal → Fiji

The correct answer is (D) 2 and 3 only.

84. Consider the following Assertion (A) and Reasons(R):

(A) Near the equator, the warm rising air that releases latent heat during the formation of cumulus towers is believed to provide the energy that drives the Hadley cells. As the flow aloft moves poleward, the air begins to subside in a zone between 20 degree and 35° latitude.

(R)(1) As upper-level flow moves away from the stormy equatorial region, radiation cooling becomes the dominant process As a result, the air cools, becomes denser, and sinks.

B(2) The Coriolis force becomes stronger with increasing distance from the equator, causing the poleward-moving upper air to be deflected into a nearly west-to-east flow by the time it reaches 30° latitude. This restricts the poleward flow of air. As a result, general subsidence occurs in the zones between 20° and 35° latitude.

Choose the correct option among the following with regards to above assertion and reasons:

A) Assertion (A) is incorrect and Reason (R)(1) and (R)(2) are correct.

B) Assertion (A) is correct, but Reason (R)(2) is an incorrect explanation of (A).

C) Assertion (A) is correct and Reasons (R)(1) and (R)(2) are correct explanations of (A).

D) Assertion (A) is correct, but Reason (R)(1) is an incorrect explanation of(A).

Ans. (C)

Assertion (A):

• Near the equator, warm air rises due to intense solar heating, creating cumulus towers.
• As this moist air rises, it cools and condenses, releasing latent heat, which adds energy to the system and drives the Hadley cell circulation.
• The air, after rising, flows poleward at high altitudes. Around 20°–35° latitude, it cools and starts descending, creating high-pressure zones (subtropical highs).

Reasons:

1. (R1) Radiation Cooling:
   • As the air moves away from the warm equatorial region, radiative cooling dominates.
   • This cooling increases air density, causing it to sink in the subtropics, contributing to subsidence.
2. (R2) Coriolis Force:
   • The Coriolis effect strengthens with distance from the equator.
   • As poleward-moving air reaches about 30° latitude, it gets deflected into a west-to-east flow (subtropical jet streams), limiting further poleward movement.
   • This results in descending air between 20° and 35°, reinforcing the Hadley cell circulation.

Both (R1) and (R2) correctly explain the process described in (A).
The correct answer is (C).

85. Consider the following distribution of the climate diagram and identify the correct match:

i. Tropical savannah

ii. Mediterranean climate

iii. Cold desert

iv. Hot desert climate

How many climates given above are correctly matched?

A) Only one climate

B) Only two climates

C) Only three climates

D) All four climates

Ans. (B)

Explanation:
Identifying climate types based on characteristics:

1. Tropical Savannah:
   • Found near the equator, marked by distinct wet and dry seasons.
   • High temperatures year-round with seasonal rainfall.
2. Mediterranean Climate:
   • Located between 30°–45° latitudes on western coasts.
   • Characterized by wet winters and dry summers.
3. Cold Desert:
   • Found in high-altitude regions or rain-shadow areas (e.g., Gobi Desert).
   • Low precipitation and significant temperature variations.
4. Hot Desert Climate:
   • Present in subtropical regions (e.g., Sahara, Thar).
   • Very low rainfall, high evaporation, and extreme temperatures.

Correct Matches:

• Tropical Savannah and Hot Desert Climate are often easier to identify.
• The Cold Desert and Mediterranean climates are sometimes mismatched in diagrams due to overlapping features.

Two climates are correctly matched.
The correct answer is (B).

86. Consider the following statements:

i. Almost all popular commercial varieties of silk are produced in India

ii. Karnataka is the leading silk producing state of India

iii. Tamilnadu is the leading silk producing state of India

iv. Indian silk industry faces a tough competition from Italy and Japan

Which of the statements given above are correct?

A) i and ii

B) ii and iii

C) ii, iii and iv

D) i, ii and iv

Ans. (D)

Explanation:
India’s silk industry and its global standing:

1. i. Almost all popular commercial varieties of silk are produced in India✅
   • India produces mulberry, eri, tussar, and muga silk, covering nearly all global varieties.
   • It is the only country producing muga silk commercially.
2. ii. Karnataka is the leading silk-producing state of India✅
   • Karnataka leads in mulberry silk production, contributing over 30% to India’s output.
3. iii. Tamil Nadu is the leading silk-producing state of India❌
   • While Tamil Nadu is a significant producer, it ranks below Karnataka.
4. iv. Indian silk industry faces competition from Italy and Japan✅
   • India faces competition from countries like China, Japan, and Italy in the global silk market, particularly in quality and finished products.

Correct Statements:i, ii, and iv
The correct answer is (D).

87. Arrange the following states in descending order of literacy rate as per 2011 census:

i. Maharashtra

ii. Tamil Nadu

iii. Mizoram

iv. Sikkim

v. Tripura

The correct match is:

A) i, ii, iii, iv, v

B) iii, v, i, iv,  ii

C) ii, iv, iii, i, v

D) ii, iv, i, iii, v

Ans. (B)

Explanation:
literacy rate as per the 2011 Census.

• Mizoram – 91.58%
• Tripura – 87.22%
• Maharashtra – 82.34%
• Sikkim – 81.42%
• Tamil Nadu – 80.09%

Descending order (highest to lowest):
Mizoram > Tripura > Maharashtra > Sikkim > Tamil Nadu

88. Which of the following states of India share an international border with Myanmar?

i. Tripura

ii. Mizoram

iii. Manipur

iv. Nagaland

Select the correct answer using the code given below:

A) i, ii and iii only

B) i, ii and iv only

C) ii, iii and iv only

D) All the states

Ans. (C)

International border with Myanmar.

India shares a 1,643 km long border with Myanmar through the following states:

• Mizoram
• Manipur
• Nagaland
• Arunachal Pradesh

Tripura does not share a border with Myanmar; it borders Bangladesh.

Correct answer:(C) – Mizoram, Manipur, and Nagaland

89. Consider the following pairs:

1.Deception Island – Australia

2. Kilauea Volcano – United States of America

3. Shiveluch volcano – Norway

4. Ibu volcano-Indonesia

Which of the following is correct with regards to above given pairs:

A) Only 2 and 4 are correctly matched

B) Only 1 and 3 are correctly matched…

C) Only 1 and 2 are correctly matched

D) Only 3 and 4 are correctly matched

Ans. (A)

Explanation:
Volcanoes with their correct countries:

1. Deception Island – ❌
   • Located in the South Shetland Islands near Antarctica, not Australia.
2. Kilauea Volcano – ✅
   • Located in Hawaii, USA, one of the world’s most active volcanoes.
3. Shiveluch Volcano – ❌
   • Located in Kamchatka Peninsula, Russia, not Norway.
4. Ibu Volcano – ✅
   • Located in Halmahera, Indonesia, an active stratovolcano.

Correctly matched pairs:2 and 4
Correct answer:(A)

90. Arrange the following countries in increasing order rubber production,

i. Philippines

ii. Indonesia

iii. Vietnam

iv. Cameroon

Select the correct answer using the code given below:

A) iv, i, ii, ii

B) i, ii, iii, iv

C) iii, i, iv, ii

D) ii, i, iv, i

Ans. (A)

Explanation:
Rubber production in increasing order.

Increasing order:Cameroon < Philippines < Vietnam < Indonesia

Correct answer:(A)

91. Consider the following pairs:

Theory                                                    Proponent

1. Glacial Control theory                        i. Daly

2. Equilibrium theory,                              ii. Murray

3. Subsidence theory                               iii. Newton

4. Standstill Theory                                    iv. Darwin

The correct match is:

     1  2  3  4

A)  i iii   ii iv

B) iii  ii   iv i

C) ii  i iii   iv

D) i  iii iv  ii

Ans. (D)

Explanation:

1. Glacial Control Theory – Reginald Daly (i)

1. • This theory, proposed by Reginald Daly, suggests that coral reef formationis influenced by glacial-interglacial cycles. During glacial periods, sea levels drop, exposing coral structures, while during interglacials, rising sea levels promote reef growth.

2. Equilibrium Theory – Isaac Newton (iii)

1. • Newton’s Equilibrium Theory focuses on the Earth’s shape. He theorized that Earth is not a perfect sphere but an oblate spheroid, bulging at the equator due to its rotation, maintaining an equilibrium shape.

3. Subsidence Theory – Charles Darwin (iv)

1. • Darwin’s Subsidence Theory explains the formation of coral atolls. He proposed that as volcanic islands slowly subsided, coral reefs continued growing upward, eventually forming ring-shaped atolls.

4. Standstill Theory – John Murray (ii)

1. • This theory explains the development of coral reefs. John Murray suggested that reefs grow on stationary platforms without the need for subsidence, opposing Darwin’s idea.

Correct match:1-i, 2-iii, 3-iv, 4-ii

92. Karewa Formations are found in:

A) Tarai region

B) Ganga delta

C) Kashmir valley

D) Rann of Kutch

Ans. (C)

Explanation:

Karewa Formations are lacustrine (lake) deposits found in the Kashmir Valley.

• These deposits are composed of clay, silt, sand, and boulder gravels, formed during the Pleistocene era.
• Karewasare known for their fertile soil, making the region ideal for growing saffron and almonds.
• They also provide significant information about the Quaternary period’s climate and tectonic history of the region.

Correct answer:(C) – Kashmir Valley

93. Consider the following statements:

i . Tectonic plates include the crust and the uppermost mantle of the solid earth.

ii. Tectonic plates are rigid, solid layers about 100 km thick.

iii. Tectonic plates include the crust and the entire mantle.

iv. Tectonic plates are confined to continental land masses only.

Which of the following statements is/are correct?

A) i, and ii only

B) ii  only

C) iii and iv only

D) iv only

Ans. (A)

Explanation:

Composition and extent of tectonic plates.

1. Statement i – Correct

1. • Tectonic plates consist of the Earth’s crust and the uppermost solid part of the mantle (collectively known as the lithosphere).

2. Statement ii – Correct

1. • These plates are rigid, solid layers with an average thickness of about 100 km, though this can vary between oceanic and continental plates.

3. Statement iii – Incorrect

1. • Tectonic plates do not include the entire mantle. They rest on the asthenosphere, a semi-molten, ductile layer that allows plate movement.

4. Statement iv – Incorrect

1. • Tectonic plates are not confined to continental landmasses; they also include oceanic plates like the Pacific Plate.

Correct answer:(A) – i and ii only

94. The eastern most longitude of India is

A) 94°23′ E

B) 97° 25′ E

C) 84° 25′ E

D) 87°26′ E

Ans. (B)

Explanation:

The easternmost longitude of India is 97°25′ E, which lies in the state of Arunachal Pradesh, near the border with Myanmar.

• India’s longitudinal extent is from 68°7′ E (Gujarat) to 97°25′ E (Arunachal Pradesh).
• This easternmost point is located at Kibithu in Arunachal Pradesh.
• India’s Standard Time (IST)is calculated from the 82°30′ E longitude, passing through Mirzapur in Uttar Pradesh.

Correct Answer:(B) – 97°25′ E

95. What is the correct sequence of the words mentioned in the Preamble of the Indian Constitution?

A) Secular, Justice, Liberty, Unity and Integrity of Nation

B) Justice, Secular, Liberty, Unity and Integrity of Nation

C) Liberty, Justice, Secular, Unity and Integrity of Nation

D) Secular, Liberty, Justice, Unity and Integrity of Nation

Ans. (A)

Explanation:

The Preamble of the Indian Constitution outlines the core values and guiding principles of the Constitution.

The exact sequence in the Preamble is:
“We, the people of India, having solemnly resolved to constitute India into a Sovereign Socialist Secular Democratic Republic and to secure to all its citizens: Justice, Liberty, Equality, and Fraternity assuring the dignity of the individual and the unity and integrity of the Nation.”

• The key sequence is:Secular, Justice, Liberty, followed by Unity and Integrity of the Nation.
• This arrangement highlights India’s commitment to secularism, social justice, and individual freedoms before emphasizing national unity.

Correct Answer:(A) – Secular, Justice, Liberty, Unity and Integrity of Nation

96. Which of the following words are mentioned in ‘Article 51-A (g) of the Indian Constitution?

i. Rivers

ii. Forests

iii. Animals

iv. Lakes

Select the correct answer:

A) I and ii only

B) i, ii and iii only

C) I, ii, and iv only

D) i, iii, and iv only

Ans. (C)

Explanation:

Article 51-A (g) of the Indian Constitution outlines one of the Fundamental Duties, which states:

“It shall be the duty of every citizen of India to protect and improve the natural environment including forests, lakes, rivers, and wildlife, and to have compassion for living creatures.”

• Forests (ii), Lakes (iv), and Rivers (i) are explicitly mentioned.
• Animals(iii) are not mentioned directly in this clause, but the term “living creatures” is used, which includes animals.

Since the question focuses on specific words mentioned, the correct options are Rivers, Forests, and Lakes.

Correct Answer:(C) – i, ii, and iv only

97. Which of the following Fundamental Rights are also available to non-citizens

i. Equality before law

ii. Freedom of expression

iii. Freedom to manage religious affairs

iv. Protection against arrest and detention in certain cases

Choose the correct answer:

A) i, ii, iii

B) ii, iii, iv

C) i, ii, iv

D)  i, iii iv

Ans. (D)

Explanation:

Some Fundamental Rights under the Indian Constitution are available to both citizens and non-citizens, while others are exclusive to Indian citizens.

1. Equality before law (Article 14) – ✅ Available to both citizens and non-citizens.
2. Freedom of expression (Article 19) – ❌ Available only to citizens.
3. Freedom to manage religious affairs (Article 26) – ✅ Available to both citizens and non-citizens.
4. Protection against arrest and detention in certain cases (Article 22) – ✅ Available to both citizens and non-citizens.

Correct Answer:(D) – i, iii, iv

98. Consider the following statements regarding Constitutional Amendment:

i . A Constitutional amendment bill can be introduced in either house of Parliament.

ii. This power is considered Parliament’s Constituent Power rather than its legislative power.

iii. Constitutional amendments are not subject to judicial review.

Which of the above statements is/are correct?

A) i only

B) ii only

C) i and ii only

D) i, ii, and iii X

Ans. (C)

Explanation: Constitutional Amendment Process

The procedure for amending the Indian Constitution is outlined in Article 368.

1. Statement i – A Constitutional amendment bill can be introduced in either house of Parliament.✅

1. • True. A Constitutional Amendment Bill can be introduced in either the Lok Sabha or the Rajya Sabha.
   • Unlike ordinary bills, it does not require prior permission from the President.

2. Statement ii – This power is considered Parliament’s Constituent Power rather than its legislative power.✅

1. • True. Amending the Constitution is done under Constituent Power, which is different from the regular legislative process.
   • While Parliament functions as a legislative body for ordinary laws, it acts as a Constituent Assembly when amending the Constitution.

3. Statement iii – Constitutional amendments are not subject to judicial review.❌

1. • False. Constitutional amendments are subject to judicial review under the “Basic Structure Doctrine” established by the KesavanandaBharati case (1973).
   • The Supreme Court ruled that Parliament cannot alter the “basic structure” of the Constitution through amendments.

Correct Answer:(C) – i and ii only

99. Consider the following statements:

1. Article 329 pertains to restrictions on court intervention in electoral matters.

2. Article 329 A was removed by the 44 Constitutional Amendment.

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

A) Only statement 1 is correct

B) Only statement 2 is correct

C) Both statements 1 and 2 are correct

D) Both statements 1 and 2 are incorrect

Ans. (C)

Explanation: Article 329 & 329A

1. Article 329 – Restrictions on court intervention in electoral matters✅

1. • True.
   • Article 329 of the Indian Constitution prevents courts from questioning laws related to the delimitation of constituencies or the allotment of seats.
   • It also states that election disputescan only be challenged through an election petition and not directly in courts.

2. Article 329A – Removed by the 44th Constitutional Amendment✅

1. • True.
   • Article 329A was introduced by the 39th Constitutional Amendment Act (1975) during the Emergency to protect the election of the Prime Minister and Speaker from judicial scrutiny.
   • It was later repealed by the 44th Constitutional Amendment Act (1978), restoring judicial oversight over such election disputes.

Correct Answer:(C) – Both statements 1 and 2 are correct

100. Identify the correct group of states having a bicameral legislature:

A) Bihar, Maharashtra, Telangana, West Bengal

B) Madhya Pradesh, Karnataka, Tamil Nadu, Uttar Pradesh

C) Uttar Pradesh, Bihar, Maharashtra, Andhra Pradesh

D) Karnataka Telangana, Rajasthan, Madhya Pradesh

Ans. (C)

Explanation: States with Bicameral Legislatures

A bicameral legislature in India means a state has two houses:

• Legislative Assembly (Vidhan Sabha) – Lower House
• Legislative Council (VidhanParishad) – Upper House

As of now, the following states have a bicameral legislature:

• Uttar Pradesh
• Bihar
• Maharashtra
• Andhra Pradesh
• Telangana
• Karnataka

Evaluation of Options:

• Option A: West Bengal does not have a Legislative Council. ❌
• Option B: Tamil Nadu and Madhya Pradesh do not have a Legislative Council. ❌
• Option C:Uttar Pradesh, Bihar, Maharashtra, Andhra Pradesh → ✅Correct group
• Option D: Rajasthan and Madhya Pradesh do not have a Legislative Council. ❌

Correct Answer:(C) – Uttar Pradesh, Bihar, Maharashtra, Andhra Pradesh

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