The JKPSC Answer Key 2025 is now available in PDF format for Question Booklet for Series C. Candidates can cross-check their answers with the official key and assess their performance. If satisfied, they can wait for the results, while those who find discrepancies can raise objections against the JKPSC Answer Key 2025 within the stipulated time frame.
The JKPSC successfully conducted the Combined Competitive Preliminary Examination (CCE) Prelims on 23rd February 2025 across multiple exam centres. Candidates eagerly awaiting their results can now refer to the JKPSC Prelims Answer Key 2025 to evaluate their performance. JKPSC Prelims 2025 Solved Question Paper provides a comprehensive analysis of every question, including detailed solutions to all questions.
JKPSC Prelims 2025 Answer Key – Solved Question Paper (Set C)
1. Consider the following statements regarding the legislative powers of the Parliament and the State Legislature:
i. Parliament has the authority to make laws for the entire territory of India.
ii. The State Legislature can make laws for the entire state or any part of it.
iii. Parliament has the power to enact extra-territorial legislation.
iv. Rajya Sabha can declare any subject from the State List to be of national interest by a resolution passed by a 2/3rd majority of its total membership.
Choose the correct answer:
A) i only
B) ii and iii only
C) i, ii, and iii only
D ii, iii, and iv
Ans. (C)
2. Consider the following statements about Money Bills:
1. The introduction of Money Bills cannot occur in the Rajya Sabha
2. The Rajya Sabha does not have the power to amend or reject it.
3. The procedure for Money Bills includes the provision for a joint sitting of Parliament.
How many of the statement/s given above is/are correct?
A) Two
C) All three
B) One
D) None of the above
Ans. (A)
3. Consider the following statements regarding starred and unstarred questions:
i. The response to starred questions is provided orally.
ii. The response to starred questions is given in written form.
iii. The response to unstarred questions is provided orally.
iv. The response to unstarred questions is given in written form.
v. Supplementary questions can be asked for starred questions.
Choose the correct answer:
A) i, iv and v only
B) ii, iii, and v only
C) i and iii only
D) ii, iv, and v only
Ans. (A)
4. Which of the following are part of the Union List?
i. Duties in respect of succession to property other than agricultural land
ii. Corporation tax
iii. Taxes on agricultural income
iv. Taxes on income other than agricultural income
Choose the correct answer:
A) i and ii only
B) i, ii and ii only
C) i, ii and iv only
D) iii and iv only
Ans. (C)
5. Consider the following statements regarding the Sixth Schedule of the Indian Constitution-
i. It has special provisions for the administration of tribal areas in four north eastern states: Assam, Meghalaya, Tripura and Manipur.
ii. The tribal areas in these states are governed as Autonomous Districts.
How many of the above Statement/s is/are correct?
A) i only
B) ii only
C) Both
D) None of the above
Ans. (B)
6. Which of the following parliamentary committee is jointly elected by both houses of Parliament?
A) Business Advisory Committee
B) Estimate Committee
C) Committee of Public Undertakings
D) Committee of Privileges
Ans. (C)
7. Consider the following functionaries:
i. Chief Election Commissioner
ii. Speaker of the Lok Sabha
iii. Judges of the Supreme Court
iv. Attorney General of India
Their correct sequence in the order of precedence is:
A) ii, iii, i, iv
B) ii, i, iii, iv
C) i, iї, iii, iv
D) i, iv, ii, i
Ans. (A)
8. Who among the following were members of the drafting committee of the Constituent Assembly?
i. B.R. Ambedkar
ii. Alladi Krishnaswamy Ayyar
iii. K. M. Munshi
iv. J.B. Kripalani
Select the correct answer using the code given below:
A) i and ii only
B) i, ii and iii only
C) i, ii and iv only
D) i, ii, iii and iv
Ans. (B)
9. With reference to the Comptroller and Auditor General of India, which of the following Statements is/are correct?
i. He/she is the head of the Indian Audit and Accounts Department.
ii. He/she holds office for a period of five years or up to the age of 65 years, whichever is earlier.
iii. His/her duty is to uphold the Constitution of India and the laws of Parliament in the field of financial administration.
Select the correct answer using the code given below.
A) i only
B) ii and iii only
C) i and iii only
D) i, ii and iii
Ans. (C)
10. Consider the following Committees:
1. Balwant Rai Mehta Committee
2. Ashok Mehta Committee
3. L M Singhvi Committee
4. Santhanam Committee
How many of the above Committees is/are related to the Panchayat Raj system?
A) Only one
B) Only Two
C) Only three
D) All four
Ans (C)
11. Which of the following expenditures are listed as the expenditure “charged’ upon the Consolidated Fund of India?
i. Salaries and allowances of the Speaker of the Lok Sabha
ii. Salaries and allowances of the Chairman of the Rajya Sabha
iii. Salaries allowances and pensions of the Judges of the Supreme Court and High Courts.
iv. Salaries, allowances and pensions of the Chief Election Commissioner.
Select the correct answer using the code given below:
A) i and ii only
B) ii and iii only
C) i, ii and iii only
B) i, ii, iii and iv only
Ans. (A)
12. Who made this statement: “Because of circumstances that have now come into being that the States have become, where it is federal or unitary, welfare states from being Police States and the ultimate responsibility as for the economic well-being of the country has become the paramount responsibility of the Centre”.
A) Rajendra Prasad
B) Jawaharlal Nehru
C) Bhimrao Ambedkar
D) T. T. Krishnamacharya
Ans. (D)
13. With reference to Censure Motion, consider the following statements:
i. It can be moved against an individual minister only.
ii. If it is passed in the Lok Sabha, the council of ministers must resign office.
iii. It should state the reasons for its adoption in the Lok Sabha.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
A) i only
B) ii only
C) Both i and ii
D) iii only
Ans. (D)
14. Below mentioned are four countries having largest Foreign Exchange Reser world in October 2024. Arrange these countries in decreasing order of the Exchange Reserves.
j. India
ii. Japan
iii. China
iv. Switzerland
Choose the correct order:
A) i, ii, iv, iii
B) iv, i, iii, ii
C) iii, ii, iv, i
D) ii, iv, is, i
Ans. (C)
15. Which of the following projects have been developed under the ‘Bharat Mala Pariyojana –
1. Delhi-Meerut Expressway
2. Eastern Peripheral Expressway
3, Chenani-Nashri tunnel
4. Ambala-Lucknow Expressway
5. Bengaluru Mysuru Expressway
Choose the correct answer:
A) 1,2, 3 and 4 only
B) 1,2, 3 and 5 only
C) 2,3 and 4 only
D) 3, 4 and 5 only
Ans. (B)
16. Which of the following are the interventions under the ‘Rashtriyą Kishor SwasthygKaryakram’ (RKSK) in India?
i. Weekly Iron Folic Acid Supplementation Programme
ii. Scheme for Promotion of Menstrual Hygiene among Adolescent Girls
iii. Peer Educator Programme
iv. Adolescent Friendly Health Clinics
v. Janani Suraksha Yojana
Choose the correct answer:
A) i, ii, iii and iv only
B) i, iv and v only
C) ii, iii, iv and v only
D) iii, iv and v only
Ans. (A)
17. In the Pradhan Mantri MUDRA Yojna, choose the correct order of the loan categories, from the lowest to the highest, in terms of the loan limits:
A) Shishu, Tarun, Kishor
B Shishu, Kishor, Tarun
C) Tarun, Kishor, Shishu
D) Tarun, Shishu, Kishor
Ans. (B)
18. Arrange the following sources of revenue of the Government of India mentioned in the Union Budget of 2024-25 in descending order:
i. Goods & Service Tax & other taxes
ii. Borrowing and Other Liabilities
iii. Corporation tax
iv. Income Tax
Choose the correct answer:
A) i, ii, iii, iv
B) ii, iv, i, iii
C) iv, iii, ii, i
D) iii, i, iv, ii
Ans. (B)
19. FRBM (Fiscal Responsibility General and Budget Management) framework mandates the Central Government to limit the Central Government Debt and the General Government Debt by 31 March 2025.What are the limits of the Central Government Debt and the Government Debt, respectively?
A) 25 percent of GDP and 45 percent of GDP, respectively
B) 30 percent of GDP and 50 percent of GDP, respectively
C) 35 percent of GDP and 55 percent of GDP, respectively
D) 40 percent of GDP and 60 percent of GDP, respectively
Ans. (D)
20. Consider the following statements regarding the Finance Commission of India:
i. The Article 380(1) of the Constitution lays down the modalities for setting up distribution of a Finance Commission to make recommendations on the proceeds of taxes between the Union and the States during the award period.
ii. The 15th Finance Commission made its recommendations for a six-year period from 2020-21 to 2025-26.
iii. Dr. Arvind Panagariya is the Chairman Of the 16h Finance Commission.
iv. The 16th Finance Commission shall make its report available by 31 March 2025.
v. The 16th Finance Commission’s recommendations would cover the period of five years commencing 01 April 2026.
Which of the above statements is/are correct:
A) i, ii and iii only
B) i, iv and v only
C) ii, iii and iv only
D) ii, iii and v only
Ans. (D)
21. Consider the following statements regarding Per Drop More Crop (PDMC) Scheme:
1. The PDMC Scheme focuses on enhancing water use efficiency at the farm level through Micro Irrigation.
2. It is a Centrally Sponsored Scheme.
3. It is implemented under Pradhan Mantri Krishi Sinchayee Yojana.
4. Financial Assistance @ 55% for Small & Marginal farmers and 45% for other farmers is provided by the government for the installation of Micro Irrigation under the Scheme.
How many of the above statement/s is/are correct?
A) Only one statement
B) Only two statements
C) Only three statements
D) All the four statements
Ans. (C)
22. Consider the following statements regarding National Electronic Fund Transfer (NEFT) and Real-Time Gross Settlement (RTGS):
1. In National Electronic Fund Transfer (NEFT), the transaction happens in batches and hence it is slow.
2. In Real-Time Gross Settlement (RTGS), transactions happen in real time and hence –being fast
3. There is no minimum limit in RTGS.
4. There is a Rs 2 Lakh minimum limit for NEFT.
How many of the above Statement/s is/are correct?
A) Only one statement
B) Only two statements
C) Only three statements
D) All the four statements
Ans. (B)
23. Consider the following statements regarding eligibility criteria for Pradhan Mantri Awas Yojana-Urban (PMAY-U) 2.0 Scheme:
i. Low-Income Group (LIG) households are families with an annual income up to Rs. 3 lakhs.
ii. Economically Weaker Section (EWS) households are families with an annual income from Rs. 3 lakhs up to Rs. 6 lakhs.
iii. Middle Income Group (MIG) households are families with an annual income from Rs. 6 lakhs up to Rs. 12 lakhs.
The INCORRECT statement/s is/are:
A) i only
B) i and iii
C) iii only
D) i, ii and iii
Ans. (D)
24. Consider the following states and answer the question given below:
i. West Bengal
ii. Andhra Pradesh
iii. Assam
iv. Bihar
v. Sikkim
vi. Arunachal Pradesh
vii. Odisha
Which of the above states are covered under the Government of India’s ‘Purvodaya Plan as announced in the Union Budget 2024?
A) ii, iv, vi and vii
B) i, ii, iv and vii
C) i, iii, v and vi
D) i, ii, iii, iv, v, vi and vii
Ans. (B)
25. Consider the following statements regarding the “Monetary Policy Committee”.
The RBI Governor has to vote both in the first instance and in case of a tie.
ii. The monetary policy committee has to meet three times a year.
Choose the correct answer:
A) i only
B) ii only
C) Both i and ii
D) Neither i nor ii
Ans. (A)
26. “Quotas are the building blocks of the IMF’s financial and governance structure. An individual member country’s quota broadly reflects its relative position in the world economy”. The above context, which of the following parameters are used to calculate quota?
i. GDP of the country
ii. Degree of Openness
iii. Demographic dividend
iv. Economic variability
v. International Reserves
Choose the correct answer based on the code given below:
A) ii, iii and v
B) i, ii, iv and v only
C) i, iii and v only
D) i, ii, ii and v only
Ans. (B)
27. Consider the following statements:
Statement-1: Invasive species can outcompete native species.
Statement-I1: Invasive species are always harmful to ecosystems.
Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements?
A) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II explains Statement I.
B) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II does not explain Statement-I.
C) Statement-I is correct, but Statement-II is incorrect
D) Statement-I is incorrect, but Statement-II is correct
Ans. (C)
28. Dendro climatology” deals with:
A) Soil moisture data
B) Tree ring data
C) Ice core data
D) Paleo magnetism data
Ans. (B)
29. Arrange the following biodiversity conservation efforts in India in chronological order from earlier to later:
i. Project Hangul
ii. Project Elephant
iii. Project Snow leopard
iv. Project Tiger
The correct answer/s is/are:
A) i, ii, iii, iv
B) i, iv, ii, iii
C) i, ii, iv, iii
D) iv, i, ii, iii
Ans. (B)
30. Match the following Act with the year of their enactment:
Act Year of enactment
1. Wildlife Protection Act i. 1974
2. Environment Protection Act ii. 1986
3. Biological Diversity Act iii. 2002
4. Water (Prevention & Control of Pollution) Act iV. 1972
Choose the correct answer:
A) 1-iv, 2-ii, 3-iii, 4-i
B) 1-i, 2-ii, 3-iii, 4-iv
C) 1-iv, 2-ii, 3-i, 4-iii
D) 1-iii, 2-iv 3-ii, 4-i
Ans. (A)
31. Which of the following missions cover the National Action Plan on Climatic Change (NAPCC)?
i. National Solar Mission
ii. National Mission for a Green India
iii. National Green Hydrogen Mission
iv. National Mission on Sustainable Habitat
v. National Bio-Fuel Mission
Select the correct answer using the code given below:
A) i, ii and iv
B) i, iii and v
C) ii, iv and v
D) All the above
Ans. (A)
32. Which of the following are UNESCO’s natural world heritage sites in India?
i. Kaziranga national park
ii. Manas wildlife sanctuary
iii. Rann of Kutch Wildlife Sanctuary
iv. Western Ghats
Select the correct answer using the code given below:
A) i, ii and iii
B) i, ii and iv
C) ii, iii and iv
D) All the above
Ans. (B)
33. Consider the following statements:
Statement 1: The extinction of a keystone species can lead to ecosystem
Statement 2: Climate change is solely future concern and has no current effects.
Statement 3: Protected areas are essential for conserving biodiversity.
Statement 4: Ozone depletion directly contributes to global warming.
Which of the statement/s given above is/are correct?
A) 1 and 3 only
B) 2 only
C) 1, 2, and 4
D) 1 and 4 only
Ans. (A)
34. Consider the following statements:
Statement1: Climate change is influenced by both natural and anthropogenic factors.
Statement 2: The Amazon rainforest is often referred to as the “lungs of the Earth”.
Statement 3: Current extinction rates are comparable to historical background rates.
Statement4: Urbanization can negatively impact local biodiversity.
The correct statement/s is/are:
A) 1 and 3 only
B) 2 and 4
C) 3 only
D) 1, 2, and 4.
Ans. (D)
35. Consider the following statements:
Statement I: Organisms that can tolerate and survive in a wide range of temperatures are called stenothermal.
Statement II: Generally, humans are considered stenothermal.
The correct answer is:
A) Only Statement I is correct
B) Only Statement II is correct
C) Both statement I and Statement Il are correct
D) Neither statement I nor Statement II are correct
Ans. (D)
36. Consider the following statements regarding the eutrophication of the lake:
i. It is an anthropogenic process and does not occur naturally.
ii. Nitrate and phosphate are the main contaminants for eutrophication.
The correct answer/s is/are:
A) і only
B) ii only
C) Both i and ii
D) Neither i nor ii
Ans. (B)
37. Consider the following statements:
Assertion (A): Carbon dioxide, Methane and Nitrous oxide are considered greenhouse gases.
Reason (R): Greenhouse gas absorbs short-wave radiation from the sun and is transparent to long-wave radiation from Earth.
Choose the correct answer:
A) A and R are both correct and R is the correct explanation of A
B) A and R are both correct and R is NOT the correct explanation of A
C) A is correct, but R is NOT correct
D) A is NOT correct, but R is correct
Ans. (C)
38. Consider the following statements regarding the productivity of an ecosystem:
i. Gross primary productivity is the rate of formation of organic matter by consumers.
Ii. Net primary productivity is the variable biomes for the consumption of heterotrophs.
The correct answer/s is/are:
A i only
B) ii only
C) Both i and ii
D) Neither i nor ii
Ans. (B)
39. Consider the following statements:
Statement-I: Buckyballs, also known as fullerenes, are fascinating carbon molecules that resemble soccer balls.
Statement-II: Fly Ash from thermal power plants contain buckyballs
Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements?
A) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II explains Statement-I
B) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II does not explain Statement-l
C) Statement-I is correct but Statement-II is incorrect
D) Statement-I is incorrect but Statement-II is correct
Ans. (C)
40. Which of the following statement(s) is/are correct with respect to possible effects of solar storms on earth?
i . Disruption of GPS navigation and satellite communications
ii. Destruction of power grids
iii. Tsunamis at equatorial regions
iv. Intense auroras all over the Earth
Select the answer using the code given below.
A) i and ii only
B) i and iii only
C) i, ii and iii only
D) i, ii and iv only
Ans. (D)
41. Consider the following features:
i. Blockchain integration
ii. Centralized platform
iii. User ownership and control
iv. Interoperability
Which of the above are characteristics of Web 3.0?
A) ii and iii only
B) i, ii and iii only
C) i, iii and iv only
D) ii, iii and iv only
Ans. (C)
42 Urea Gold’ is a mixture of:
A) Nitrogen and gold X
B) Phosphorous and gold X
C) Nitrogen and Sulphur
D) Potassium and Phosphorous
Ans. (C)
43. Identify the correct match:
Salt Chemical formula
1. Washing soda Na2CO3
2. Baking soda NaHCO3
3. Gypsum CaSO4, 2H₂O
4. Plaster of Paris CaSO4, 1/2H20
How many match/es is/are correct?
A) Only one match
B) Only two matches
C) Only three matches
D) All the four matches
Ans. (D)
44. Which of the following statement(s) is/are correct regarding the Global innovation index 2024-
i. Switzerland maintained its position as the global leader in innovation
ii. India ranked 39th in the Global Innovation Index 2024
iii. India secured the top position among lower middle-income countries
iv. Singapore moves up to second position, leading in several innovation indicators
Select the answer using the code given below.
A) i, ii and iii only
B) i, ii and iv only
C) i, iii and iv only
D) ii, iii and iv only
Ans. (A)
45. Consider the following statements regarding Sickle cell anaemia:
i. It is caused due to genetic mutation.
ii. It affects the shape of red blood cells and causes the inability to carry oxygen.
iii. It can be treated by bone marrow or stem cell transplantation.
iv. Sick Cell Disease causes the body to make normal haemoglobin
The incorrect statement/s is/are:
A) i only
B) iii only
C) ii and iii only
D) iv only
Ans. (D)
46. Bletchley Declaration, 2023 was signed by which of the following countries among others?
i. United Kingdom
ii. South Korea
iii. Russia
iv. China
Select the correct answer using the code given below.
A) i and ii only
B) i and iii only
C) i and iv only
D) All of these
Ans. (C)
47. As per the Jammu and Kashmir Budget 2024-25, around how many Megawatt(M rooftop solar power plants are planned to be installed on the government buildings by the Science and Technology Department?
A) 1 MW
B) 2 MW
C) 3 MW
D) 4 MW
Ans. (D)
48. Which of the following infections DOES NOT spread through direct contact or close proximity with the infected person? Select the most appropriate option from the option given below:
(A) Monkeypox (Mpox)
B) SarsCov2 infection
C) Influenza virus infection
D) Chikungunya
Ans. (D)
49. Noble Prize for Physics 2024 awarded for the development of:
A) Nuclear fusion reaction
B) Quantum generator
C) Blockchain
D) Foundational work in Machine Learning using Artificial Neural Networks
Ans. (D)
50. Which of the following materials is widely used to make quantum dots for biologic applications?
A) Silicon
B) Cadmium selenide
C) Gallium arsenide
D) Germanium
Ans. (B)
51. Match the following countries based on their ranks as per the medal tally in the Paris Olympics, 2024:
Countries Rank
1. Australia i. Rank one
2. China ii. Rank two
3. Japan iii. Rank three
4. France iv. Rank four
v. Rank Five
Choose the correct answer:
A) 1-iv, 2-ii, 3-iii, 4-v
B) 1-ii, 2-1 3-iii, 4-v
C) 1-ii, 2-iii, 3-i, 4-iv
D) 1-iii, 2- iv, 3-1, 4-ii
Ans. A
52. Consider the following statements:
Assertion (A): The BRICS Summit in year (2024) was hosted by Russia.
Reasoning (R): The motto of the BRICS Summit 2024 was “Strengthening Multilateralism for Just Global Development and Security.”
Choose the correct answer:
A) A is true but R is false
B) Both A and Rare true and R is the correct explanation of A
C) A is false but R is true
D) Both A and R are true but R is not the correct explanation of A
Ans. (B)
53. Arrange the general elections in following Asian countries in 2024 in the correct chronological order:
i. Indonesia Aus
ii. India
iii. Pakistan Juve
iv. Kuwait
v. Jordan
Choose the correct order:
A) iv, iii, i, v, ii
B) i, iv, iii, v, ii
C) iii, i, iv, ii, v
D) ii, iv, v, i, iii
Ans. (C)
54. Arrange the following international events held in year 2024 m the correct chronological order:
i. World Biodiversity Summit (Cali)
ii. World Climate Summit (New York)
iii. World Climate Summit (Baku)
iv. World Biodiversity Summit (New York)
v. Climate Investment Summit (London)
Choose the correct order:
A) iv, iii, i, v, ii
B) i, iv, iii, v, ii
C) v, ii, iv, i, iii
D) ii, iv, v, i, iii
Ans. (c)
55. Which of the following statements about the Asia Pacific Ministerial Conference on Civil Aviation are correct?
i. The first Asia Pacific Ministerial Conference was held in Beijing In 2018.
ii. The second Asia Pacific Ministerial Conference was held in New Delhi in 2024
iii. The second conference was co-hosted by the International Civil Aviation Organization and India’s Ministry of Civil Aviation.
iv. The third Asia Pacific Ministerial Conference will be held in Ankara in 2030.
Choose the correct answer given below:
A) i and ii only
B) i, ii and iii only
C) i, ii, iii and i
D) i and iv only
Ans. (B)
56. Cancer Moonshot initiative’, recently highlighted in news, is launched by which of the following countries?
A) China, United Kingdom, Canada, and France
B) The United States of America, United Kingdom, Indonesia, and Malaysia
C) India, Russia, France, and Japan
D) The United States of America, Australia, India, and Japan
Ans. (D)
57. The Indian Institute of Technology Delhi (IIT Delhi) recently opened its overseas campus at-
A) Muscat
B) Abu Dhabi
C) Dubai
D) Sharjah
Ans. (B)
58. Which of the following statements about “Development of Semiconductors and Display Manufacturing Ecosystems in India” are correct?
i. Three semiconductors’ units will be established under this programme.
ii. All the three units will be located in the state of Assam.
iii. These units will generate direct employment for one lakh people.
iv. Two units will be established in Gujarat and one unit in Assam.
Choose the correct answer given below:
A) i and ii only
B) i, ii and iii only
C) i, ii, iii and iv
D) i and iv only
Ans. (D)
59. Match the following books and authors shortlisted for Booker Prize 2024:
Books Authors
1. Held i. Charlotte Wood
2. Creation Lake ii. Rachel Kushner
3. Orbital iii. Samantha Harvey
4. James iv. Anne Michaels
v. Percival Everett
Choose the correct answer:
A) 1-iv, 2-ii, 3-iii, 4-v
B) 1-ii, 2-i, 3-iii, 4-v
C) 1-ii, 2-iii, 3-1, 4-iv
D) 1-iii, 2- iv, 3-i, 4-ii
Ans. (A)
60. Match the following state/UT-wise list of Gl tagged handloom products of India:
GI Tagged Handloom Products State/UT
1. Tangaliya Shawl i. Nagaland
2. Chakheshang Shawl ii. Gujarat
3. Habaspuri Saree and Products iii. Odisha
4. Kani Shawl iv Jammu and Kashmir
Choose the correct answer:
A) 1-iv, 2-ii, 3-iii, 4-i
B) 1-ii, 2-1, 3-iii, 4-iv
C) 1-ii, 2-iii, 3-i, 4-iv
D) 1-iii, 2-iv, 3-i, 4-ii
Ans. (B)
61. Which of the following statements about the movie “Santosh” are correct?
i. The Movie premiered at the 77th Cannes Film Festival 2024.
ii. The Movie is Britain’s Oscar entry in the international feature category.
iii. The Movie is India’s Oscar entry in the international feature category.
iv. The Movie is directed by an Indian Director Sandhya Suri.
Choose the correct answer given below:
A) i and ii Only
B) i, ii and iii Only
C) i, ii, iii and iv
D) i and iv Only
Ans. (A)
62. Match the following edition of India-Kazakhstan Joint Military Exercise the venue of the exercises:
Joint Military Exercise Venue
i. KAZIND-2024 Auli
ii. KAZIND-2023 Otar
iii. KAZIND-2022 Aisha Bibi
iv. KAZIND-2021 Umroi
How many pairs given above are correct?
A) Only one pair
B) Only two pairs
C) Only three pairs
D) All four pairs
Ans. (B)
63. Which of the following statements about the goals of Jammu and Kashmir Tourism Policy (2020) are correct?
i. To become the most preferred all-season tourist destination for both domestic and foreign tourists by 2025.
ii. To promote all kinds of tourism across Jammu and Kashmir.
iii. To promote city-wise events and festivals with a predefined calendar and promoting the same at national and international level.
iv. To generate employment of approximately 75,000 people per year.
Choose the correct answer given below:
A) i and ii only
B) i, ii and iii only
C) i, ii, iii and iv
D) i and iv only
Ans. (B)
64. Consider the following statements:
Assertion (A): The Jammu and Kashmir Assembly Elections (2024) is the third such elections in the last one decade.
Reason (R): The Jammu and Kashmir Assembly Elections 2024 is the first election since 1947 that has reserved seats for SCs and STs
Choose the correct answer:
A) A is true but R is false
B) Both A and R are true, and R is the correct explanation of A
C) A is false but R is true
D) Both A and R are true, but R is not the correct explanation of A
Ans. (C)
65. In which year does ISRO plan to launch the first base module of the Bharatiya Antariksh Station?
A) 2032
B) 2030
C) 2029
D) 2028
Ans. (D)
66. Brihatkathamanjari was written by:
A) Gunadhya
B) Harisena
C) Lal Ded
D) Kshemendra
Ans. (D)
67. Which of the following is/are true about Ganas or Sanghas?
i. Most of the ganas were located in or near Himalayan foothills
ii. The ganas had greater vestiges of tribal organization
iii. Power in ganas was vested in the hands of an aristocracy
iv. The ganas were associated with Vaisyas
Choose the correct answer:
A) Only i is correct
B) Only i & ii are correct
C) Only i, ii, & iii are correct
D) Only i, ii & iv are correct
Ans. (C)
68. Arrange the following in chronological order from earlier to later:
i. Northern Black Polished Ware (NBPW)
ii. Ochre Colored Pottery (OCP)
iii. Painted Grey Ware (PGW)
iv. Black and Red Ware (BRW).
Choose the correct answer:
A) iii, ii, iv, i
B) iv, iii, ii, i
C) ii, iv, iii, i
D) ii, iii, iv, i
Ans. (C)
69. Which of the following statements is/are correct regarding the Indus Valley Civilization (IVC)?
i. Scribes were involved in the seal-making process of the civilization.
ii. The Great Bath of Mohenjodaro featured brick walls and a waterproof layer of natural tar.
iii. The people of IVC used iron ploughs in their agricultural practices.
Select the correct answer using the codes given below:
A) i and ii only
B) ii and iii only
C) i only
D) i, ii and iii
Ans. (A)
70. Consider the following statements with regard to the Rock Edicts of Ashoka:
i. References to many kinds of Mahamattas
ii. Pradesikas, Rajukas and yuktas were important officials at the district level
iii. Reference to city administration run by six committees of five members each
iv. References to pativedakas and pulisani
Which of the above statement(s) is/are correct?
A) i & il only
B) i & iii only
C) i, ii & iii only
D) i, ii & iv only
Ans. (D)
71. Consider the following statements with regards to the iqta system:
1. The iqta was a territorial assignment given to administrative officers and nobles in lieu of the services they performed for the state
2. The holder of iqta was designated as muqti.
3. Originally Iqta was hereditary and the Muqti was entitled for the right of its ownership.
Which of the following statement(s) above is/are correct?
A) Only1 is correct
B) Only 1 and 2 are correct
C) Only I and are correct
D) All the 3 statements are correct
Ans. (B)
72. Consider the following statements:
Assertion (A): Atharva Veda, Mahabharata, Ramayana and Gita were translated into Persian during Akbar’s regime
Reason (R): Jahangir set up a translation bureau to translate works in Sanskrit, Arabic, Greek etc.
Choose the correct answer:
A) Both A & R are true, R is the correct explanation of A
B) Both A & R are true, R is NOT the correct explanation of A
C) A is true but R is false
D) R is true but A is false
Ans. (C)
73. “The princes of the Bahman, maintained their superiority by valour only; for in power, wealth and extent of the country, the Rayas of Bijarnagar (Vijayanagar) greatly exceeded them”.
Who among the following made this statement?
A) Nicolo Conti
B) Ferishta
C) Abdur Razzaq
D) Nuniz
Ans. (B)
74. Match the following positions with their responsibilities in Maratha administration under Shivaji:
Position Responsibility
1. Peshwa i. Finance and General Administration
2: Sar-i-naubat ii. Master of ceremonies
3. Surnavis ii. Commander-in-Chief
4. Dabir iv. Royal correspondence
Choose the correct answer from below:
1 2 3 4
A) i iii iv ii
B) i ii iv iii
C) iii ii i iv
D) i ii iii iv
Ans. (A)
75. Match the following battles with the year they were fought:
Battles Year
1. First Battle of Panipat i. 1526
2. Battle of Chausa ii. 1527
3. Battle of Khanwa iii. 1540
4. Battle of Kanauj iv. 1539
Choose the correct answer from below:
1 2 3 4
A) i iv ii iii
B) i iv iii ii
C) i ii iii iv
D) i iii iv ii
Ans. (A)
76. Match the Indian musicians of the early twentieth century with their field of expertise:
Musician Field of expertise
1. Narayana Dasu i. Violin
2. Dhanammal ii. Harikatha
3. Allauddin Khan iii. Veena
4. Chowdiah iv. Sarod
v. Hindustani vocal
Choose the correct answer:
A) 1-i, 2-ii. 3-v, 4-iv
B) 1-ii, 2-i, 3-iii, 4-v
C) 1-iii, 2-i, 3-iv, 4-ii
D) 1-ii, 2-iii, 3-iv, 4-i
Ans. (D)
77. Which of the following is/are correct regarding the Charter Act of 1853?
i. The Act provided that the salaries of the members of the Board of Control, its secretary and other officials would be fixed by the East India Company and paid by the British government
ii. The number of members of the Court of Directors reduced from 24 to 18.
iii. 6 of the Court of Directors were to be nominated by the Crown.
Select the correct answer using the code given below:
A) i & ii only
B) i & iii only
C) ii & iii only
D) i, ii & iii only
Ans. (C)
78. Which of the following statement/s is/are correct regarding the Non-cooperation Movement?
i. The Congress in its annual session held in December 1920 at Allahabad adopted Gandhiji’s plan for non-cooperation movement against the government
2. The Congress gave the call for surrender of titles and honours
3. Also an appeal was made to use swadeshi cloths.
Choose the correct answer using the code given below:
A) Only 1 is correct
B) Only 1 and 2 are correct
C) Only 2 & 3 are correct
D) 1, 2 and 3 are correct
Ans. (C)
79. Consider the following statements with reference to The Lucknow Pact:
1. It offered a joint League-Congress scheme for constitutional reforms.
2. It demanded representative Government and dominion status for India.
3. However, it does not accept the principle of separate electorate and proportional representation in both imperial and provincial legislatures.
4. The Lucknow Pact was seen as a beacon of hope to Hindu-Muslim unity.
How many of the above statement/s is/are correct?
A) Only one
B) Only two
B) Only three
D) All the four
Ans. (C)
80. Arrange the following events during the freedom struggle chronologically from earlier into later:
i. The Wavell Plan
ii. The Rajagopalachari Formula
iii The August Offer
iv. The Cabinet Mission
Choose the correct answer:
A) iii, iv, ii, i
B) iii, i, ii, iv
C) iii, ii, iv, i
D) iii, ii, i, iv
Ans. (D)
81. Consider the following pairs:
Ramsar Wetland State
i. Bhoj Wetland 1. Gujarat
ii. Nalsarovar 2. Uttar Pradesh
iii. Kanjali 3. Madhya Pradesh
iv. Sandi Bird Sanctuary 4. Punjab
Which of the following options is correctly matched with regards to above given wetlands and states?
A) i-1, ii-3, iii-2, iv-4
B) i-3, ii-1, iii-4, iv-2
C) i-2, ii-3- iii-1, iv-4
D) i-4 ii-2, iii-3, iv-i
Ans. (B)
82. Consider the following Particularly Vulnerable Tribal Groups (PVTGs):
i. Jarawa
ii. Sentinelese
iii. Onge
iv. Shom Pen
V. Chenchu
vi. Great Andamanies
How many of the above mentioned PVTGs belong to Andaman and Nicobar Island?
A) Only three
B) Only one
C) Only five
D Only four
Ans. (C)
83. Consider the following pairs:
Cyclone Affected country/region
1. Yagi Indonesia
2. Beryl Caribbean
3. Mal Fiji
4. Kevin USA
Which of the above given pairs is/are correctly matched?
A) 1 and 3 only
B) 2 and 4 only
C) 1 and 4 only
D) 2 and 3 only
Ans. (D)
84. Consider the following Assertion (A) and Reasons(R):
(A) Near the equator, the warm rising air that releases latent heat during the formation of cumulus towers is believed to provide the energy that drives the Hadley cells. As the flow aloft moves poleward, the air begins to subside in a zone between 20 degree and 35° latitude.
(R)(1) As upper-level flow moves away from the stormy equatorial region, radiation cooling becomes the dominant process As a result, the air cools, becomes denser, and sinks.
B(2) The Coriolis force becomes stronger with increasing distance from the equator, causing the poleward-moving upper air to be deflected into a nearly west-to-east flow by the time it reaches 30° latitude. This restricts the poleward flow of air. As a result, general subsidence occurs in the zones between 20° and 35° latitude.
Choose the correct option among the following with regards to above assertion and reasons:
A) Assertion (A) is incorrect and Reason (R)(1) and (R)(2) are correct.
B) Assertion (A) is correct, but Reason (R)(2) is an incorrect explanation of (A).
C) Assertion (A) is correct and Reasons (R)(1) and (R)(2) are correct explanations of (A).
D) Assertion (A) is correct, but Reason (R)(1) is an incorrect explanation of(A).
Ans. (C)
85. Consider the following distribution of the climate diagram and identify the correct match:
i. Tropical savannah
ii. Mediterranean climate
iii. Cold desert
iv. Hot desert climate
How many climates given above are correctly matched?
A) Only one climate
B) Only two climates
C) Only three climates
D) All four climates
Ans. (B)
86. Consider the following statements:
i. Almost all popular commercial varieties of silk are produced in India
ii. Karnataka is the leading silk producing state of India
iii. Tamilnadu is the leading silk producing state of India
iv. Indian silk industry faces a tough competition from Italy and Japan
Which of the statements given above are correct?
A) i and ii
B) ii and iii
C) ii, iii and iv
D) i, ii and iv
Ans. (D)
87. Arrange the following states in descending order of literacy rate as per 2011 census:
i. Maharashtra
ii. Tamil Nadu
iii. Mizoram
iv. Sikkim
v. Tripura
The correct match is:
A) i, ii, iii, iv, v
B) iii, v, i, iv, ii
C) ii, iv, iii, i, v
D) ii, iv, i, iii, v
Ans. (B)
88. Which of the following states of India share an international border with Myanmar?
i. Tripura
ii. Mizoram
iii. Manipur
iv. Nagaland
Select the correct answer using the code given below:
A) i, ii and iii only
B) i, ii and iv only
C) ii, iii and iv only
D) All the states
Ans. (C)
89. Consider the following pairs:
1.Deception Island – Australia
2. Kilauea Volcano – United States of America
3. Shiveluch volcano – Norway
4. Ibu volcano-Indonesia
Which of the following is correct with regards to above given pairs:
A) Only 2 and 4 are correctly matched
B) Only 1 and 3 are correctly matched…
C) Only 1 and 2 are correctly matched
D) Only 3 and 4 are correctly matched
Ans. (A)
90. Arrange the following countries in increasing order rubber production,
i. Philippines
ii. Indonesia
iii. Vietnam
iv. Cameroon
Select the correct answer using the code given below:
A) iv, i, ii, ii
B) i, ii, iii, iv
C) iii, i, iv, ii
D) ii, i, iv, i
Ans. (A)
91. Consider the following pairs:
Theory Proponent
1. Glacial Control theory i. Daly
2. Equilibrium theory, ii. Murray
3. Subsidence theory iii. Newton
4. Standstill Theory iv. Darwin
The correct match is:
1 2 3 4
A) i iii ii iv
B) iii ii iv i
C) ii i iii iv
D) i iii iv ii
Ans. (D)
92. Karewa Formations are found in:
A) Tarai region
B) Ganga delta
C) Kashmir valley
D) Rann of Kutch
Ans. (C)
93. Consider the following statements:
i . Tectonic plates include the crust and the uppermost mantle of the solid earth.
ii. Tectonic plates are rigid, solid layers about 100 km thick.
iii. Tectonic plates include the crust and the entire mantle.
iv. Tectonic plates are confined to continental land masses only.
Which of the following statements is/are correct?
A) i, and ii only
B) ii only
C) iii and iv only
D) iv only
Ans. (A)
94. The eastern most longitude of India is
A) 94°23′ E
B) 97° 25′ E
C) 84° 25′ E
D) 87°26′ E
Ans. (B)
95. What is the correct sequence of the words mentioned in the Preamble of the Indian Constitution?
A) Secular, Justice, Liberty, Unity and Integrity of Nation
B) Justice, Secular, Liberty, Unity and Integrity of Nation
C) Liberty, Justice, Secular, Unity and Integrity of Nation
D) Secular, Liberty, Justice, Unity and Integrity of Nation
Ans. (A)
96. Which of the following words are mentioned in ‘Article 51-A (g) of the Indian Constitution?
i. Rivers
ii. Forests
iii. Animals
iv. Lakes
Select the correct answer:
A) I and ii only
B) i, ii and iii only
C) I, ii, and iv only
D) i, iii, and iv only
Ans. (C)
97. Which of the following Fundamental Rights are also available to non-citizens
i. Equality before law
ii. Freedom of expression
iii. Freedom to manage religious affairs
iv. Protection against arrest and detention in certain cases
Choose the correct answer:
A) i, ii, iii
B) ii, iii, iv
C) i, ii, iv
D) i, iii iv
Ans. (D)
98. Consider the following statements regarding Constitutional Amendment:
i . A Constitutional amendment bill can be introduced in either house of Parliament.
ii. This power is considered Parliament’s Constituent Power rather than its legislative power.
iii. Constitutional amendments are not subject to judicial review.
Which of the above statements is/are correct?
A) i only
B) ii only
C) i and ii only
D) i, ii, and iii X
Ans. (C)
99. Consider the following statements:
1. Article 329 pertains to restrictions on court intervention in electoral matters.
2. Article 329 A was removed by the 44 Constitutional Amendment.
Choose the correct answer from the options given below:
A) Only statement 1 is correct
B) Only statement 2 is correct
C) Both statements 1 and 2 are correct
D) Both statements 1 and 2 are incorrect
Ans. (C)
100. Identify the correct group of states having a bicameral legislature:
A) Bihar, Maharashtra, Telangana, West Bengal
B) Madhya Pradesh, Karnataka, Tamil Nadu, Uttar Pradesh
C) Uttar Pradesh, Bihar, Maharashtra, Andhra Pradesh
D) Karnataka Telangana, Rajasthan, Madhya Pradesh
Ans. (C)
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