HPJS 2025 Solved Question Paper | यहाँ देखें HPJS 2025 के Answers

The Himachal Pradesh Public Service Commission (HPPSC) successfully conducted the Himachal Pradesh Judiciary Services Exam (HPJS) Prelims on March 2, 2025. Candidates eagerly awaiting their results can now refer to the HPJS Prelims Question Paper 2025 with Solutions to evaluate their performance.

The HPJS Prelims Answer Key 2025 provides a detailed solution set for all questions, enabling aspirants to estimate their scores before the official results are announced. Candidates who appeared for Paper I (Civil Law – I), Paper II (Civil Law – II), and Paper III (Civil Law – III) can now access the HPJS 2025 Solved Question Paper to evaluate their performance.

Himachal Pradesh Judicial Services Exam 2025 Paper – I

Civil Law- I

1. ‘X’ went to purchase two railway tickets for himself and his wife ‘W’. During ticket checking, only ‘X’ could produce his ticket, and thus ‘W’ was charged for travelling without ticket. The burden of proving the fact about the purchasing of the ticket lies on :

(A) X only

(B) W only

(D) Prosecution

Ans: B

2. In accordance with the Indian Evidence Act, 1872, an oral account of a copy of document compared with the original is :

(A) Primary evidence

(B) Secondary evidence

(D) Substantive evidence

Ans: C

3. Consider the following statements:

Statement-I: When the Court has to form an opinion as to the person by whom any document was written, the opinion of any person acquainted with the handwriting of the person by whom it is supposed to be written is a relevant fact.

Statement-II : The Expression ‘expert’ includes persons who may or may not professionally skilled in any specific branch of knowledge.

Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements?

(A) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II explains Statement-I

(B) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II does not explain Statement-I

(D) Statement-I is incorrect and Statement-II is correct

Ans: B*

4. Presumption of continuance of life is prescribed under…. …. of the Indian Evidence Act, 1872. (A) Section 106

(B) Section 107

(D) Section 112

Ans: B

5. Section 8 of the Specific Relief Act, 1963 can be invoked :

(A) Against a person who has possession or control over the property

(B) Against a person who is the owner of the property

(D) None of the above

Ans: A

6. Which of the following provision deals with declaratory decree under the Specific Relief Act, 1963?

(A) Section 31

(B) Section 34

(D) Section 36

Ans: B

7. Which of the following is true of perpetual injunction?

(A) Preventive in nature

(B) It prevents wrongful act

(D) None of the above

Ans: C

8. In accordance with the Specific Relief Act, 1963, consider the following statements :

(1) A contract for sale IPR right can be specifically enforced.

(2) Agreement to form an association can always be specifically enforced.

(3) As a general rule, the court shall not direct the specific performance of part of a contract.

Which of the above are correct ?

(A) (1) and (2)

(B) (1) and (3)

(D) All of the above

Ans: B

9. Under the Himachal Pradesh Courts Act, 1976, which of the following is authorized to decide the local limits of jurisdictions of the subordinate courts?

(A) Governor

(B) Home Ministry

(D) District Judge

Ans: C

10. In accordance with the Himachal Pradesh Courts Act, 1976, consider the following statements:

(1) Court may be held at any place within the local limits of its jurisdiction.

(2) The place of sitting may be beyond the local limits of the jurisdiction of the court.

(3) The Governor, local limit with also. the approval of High Court can fix place of sitting beyond Which of the above are correct ?

(A) (1) and (2)

(B) (1) and (3)

(D) All of the above

Ans: A

11. As per the Indian Stamp Act, 1899, a contract of any kind affected by correspondence consisting of two or more letters, the contract shall be deemed to be duly stamped if :

(A) Both the letters are stamped separately

(B) Both the letters are stamped jointly

(D) None of the above

Ans: C

12. Drawing, making, issuing, end0rsing or transferring a promissory note without of the Indian Stamp being duly stamped is punishable under Act, 1988.

(A) Section 32

(B) Section 36

(D) Section 62

Ans: D

13. With reference to the Code of Civil Procedure, 1908, consider the following statements:

(1) A decree conclusively determines the rights of the parties.

(2) No preliminary decree can be passed merely to decide the mesne profit.

(3) When no appeal is preferred, the decree becomes final.

Which of the above are correct ?

(A) (1) and (2)

(B) (1) and (3)

(D) All of these

Ans: B

14. Which of the following provisions of the Code of Civil Procedure, 1908 provides definition of Judgment?

(A) Section 2(7)

(B) Section 2(9)

(D) Section 2(21)

Ans: B

15. Consider the following pairs :

	Terms	Code of Civil Procedure, 1908
(1)	Mesne Profit	Section 2(12)
(2)	Res Sub-judice	Section 10
(3)	Constructive Res Judicata	Section 11 Explanation IV

How many pairs given above are correctly matched?

(A) (1) and(2)

(B) (1) and (3)

(D) All of these

Ans: D

16. Consider the following pairs

	Terms	Code of Civil Procedure, 1908
(1)	Small Causes Court	Section 8
(2)	Place of Suing for Claim of Compensation	Section 18
(3)	Objection to Jurisdiction	Section 21

How many pairs given above are correctly matched?

(A) (1) and (2)

(B) (1) and (3)

(D) All of these

Ans: B

17. ‘A’ a journalist residing in Chandigarh, makes a defamatory statement to ‘B’ residing in Lucknow. ‘B’ may file suit at :

(A) Chandigarh

(B) Lucknow

(D) Anywhere in India

Ans: C

18. A suit is said to be instituted in the court when

(A) Original copy of the plaint is presented to the court

(B) A plaint in duplicate is presented to the court

(D) Plaint as well as written statement both has been duly received by the court.

Ans: B

19. With reference to the Code of Civil Procedure, 1908, consider the following statements:

(1) A judgement contains statement on facts.

(2) Judgement contains statement of points of determination.

(3) Judgement contains the determinations and reasons thereof.

Which of the above are correct?

(A) (1) and (2)

(B) (1) and (3)

(D) All of these

Ans: D

20. Which of the following would be the consequence in case of misjoinder or non-joinder of the parties under Order-I Rule 9 of the Code of Civil Procedure, 1908?

(A) Suit dismissed

(B) Suit cannot be dismissed

(D) None of the above

Ans: B

21. With reference to the Code of Civil Procedure, 1908, consider the following statements:

(1) There is no explicit provision for consolidation of suits.

(2) Appropriate court can do consolidation of suits by transferring the suits filed in different jurisdictions to one court.

(3) Court can do consolidation of the suits by using its inherent power.

Which of the above are correct ?

(A) (1) and (2)

(B) (1) and (3)

(D) All of these

Ans: D

22. Pleadings means and includes:

(A) Plaint

(B) Written statement

(D) (A) and (B) only

Ans: D

23. Plaintiff files plaint against X, Y, Z implicating together. Which of the following is/are authorized to do the verification of the written statement under Order VI Rule 15 of the Code of Civil Procedure, 1908?

(A) X, Y and Z, collectively

(B) X, Y or Z

(D) All of the above

Ans: D

24. While filing the written statement, which of the following can be made part thereof ?

(A) Set off

(B) Counter Claim

(D) None of these

Ans: C

25. Where the defendant appears and the plaintiff does not appear when the suit is called on for hearing, the Court can :

(1) Dismiss the suit in default.

(2)Pass a decree to an extent the defendant admits any claim of the plaintiff.

(3) In case partial admission of plaintiffs claim, shall pass a decree on entire claim.

Which of the above are correct?

(A) (1) and (2)

(B) (1) and (3)

(D) All of these

Ans: A

26. Which of the following provision of the Code of Civil Procedure, 1908 deals with alteration of the issues already framed ?

(A) Order XIII Rule 5

(B) Order XIV Rule 5

(D) Order XIV Rule 11

Ans: B

27. Notice for admission of case under Order XII can be given by:

(A) Party through pleadings

(B) As per form prescribed by the Code

(D) All of the above

Ans: D

28. Consider the following pairs

	Terms	Code of Civil Procedure, 1908
(1)	Cost	Section 35
(2)	Interest	Section 36
(3)	Compensatory Cost for false claim	Section 35A

How many pairs given above are correctly matched ?

(A) (1) and (2)

B) (1) and (3)

(D) All of the above

Ans: B

29. Under Section 27 of the Code of Civil Procedure, 1908, where a suit has been duly instituted, a summons may be issued to the defendant to appear and answer the claim and may be served on such day not beyond days from date of the institution of the suit.

(A) 14

(B) 30

(D) 90

Ans: B

30. Which of the following Sections of the Code of Civil Procedure deals with precepts?

(A) Section 44

(B) Section 46

(D) Section 38

Ans: B

31. Under the Code of Civil Procedure, 1908, with reference to execution of a decree against the judgment debtor

(1) His property can be attached and sold.

(2)16 The judgment debtor, other than women, may be arrested.

(3) The tools of artisans, cattle etc., cannot be attached.

Which of the above are correct?

(A) (1) and (2)

(B) (1) and(3)

(D) All of the above

Ans: B

32. With reference to the Code of Civil Procedure, 1908, consider the following statements

(1) The appellate court has same powers and duties as assigned to the court of original jurisdiction in respected of any suit instituted therein.

(2) Appellate court can decide case finally but has not power to remand it back.

(3) Appellate court can reframe the issue and refer it back to the court of original jurisdiction.

Which of the above are correct?

(A) (1) and (2)

(B) (1) and (3)

(D) All of these

Ans: B

33. Under Order XXII of the Code of Civil Procedure, 1908, consider the following statements:

(1) Death of parties will not abate the suit if the right to sue survives.

(2) There shall be no abatement of suit once hearing concludes.

(3) Where a suit is filed against a woman, her marriage will not abate the suit and the judgment can be enforced against her as well as her husband, and her children.

Which of the above are correct ?

(A) (1) and (2)

(B) (1) and (3)

(D) All of the above

Ans: A

34. Which of the following deals with interpleader suit?

(A) Section 88 and Order XXXV

(B) Section 89 Order XXXV

(D) Section 89 Order XXXIII

Ans: A

35. Before filing a suit against state, a notice of is required.

(A) 30 days

(B) 90 days

(Đ) Two months

Ans: D

36. As per the Code of Civil Procedure, 1908, which of the following courts has revisional jurisdiction ?

(A) The court of District Court

(B) High Court

(D) All of the above

Ans: B

37. Which of the following is essential while exploring admissibility of facts under section 6 of the Indian Evidence Act, 1872?

(A) Proximity of time and proximate of place

(B) Continuity of action

(D) All of the above

Ans: D

38. The question of ‘relevancy’ under the Indian Evidence Act, 1872 is

(A) Question of fact

(B) Question of law

(D) None of the above

Ans: B

39. As per the Indian Evidence Act, 1872, consider the following statements :

(1) A fact is said to be proved when, after considering the matters before it, the Court believes it to exist.

(2) A fact is said to be proved when, after considering the matters before it, the Court considers its existence so probable that a prudent man ought, under the circumstances of the particular case, to act upon the supposition

(3) that it exists. When a fact neither proved nor disproved, the court presumed it to be disproved. X Which of the above are correct ?

(A) (1) and (2)

(B) (1) and (3)

(D) All of these

Ans: A

40. When on proof of a given fact per the Indian Evidence Act, 1872, the court regards the other fact as proved, and refused to allow evidence to be given for the purpose of disproving it, the said presumption is :

(A) May proof

(B) Shall proof

(D) None of the above

Ans: C

41. When the question is, whether A poisoned B, which of the fact is/are relevant under section 8 of the Indian Evidence Act, 1872?

(A) State of B’s health before the symptoms ascribed to poison

(B) Habits of B, known to A, which afforded an opportunity for the administration of poison. (C) The facts that A murdered C, that B knew that A had murdered C, and that B had tried to extort money from A by threatening to make his knowledge public.

(D) All of the above are relevant under Section 8.

Ans: C

42. A, accused of theft, is seen to give the stolen property to B, who is seen to give it to(A’s)wife. B says as he delivers it-“A says you are to hide this.” B’s statement is relevant under of the Indian Evidence Act, 1872.

(A) Section 7

(B) Section 8

(D) None of these

Ans: C

43. Which of the state of mind/body is(not the part of Section 14 of the Indian Evidence Act, 1872?

(A) Good faith

(B) Rashness

(D) All of these

Ans: C**

44. As per the Indian Evidence Act, 1872, consider the following statements

(1) Admission constitutes a substantive piece of evidence.

(2) Admission should be certain and not vague or ambiguous.

(3) Admission has no effect on shifting the onus of proof.

Which of the above are correct ?

(A) (1) and (2)

(B) (1) and (3)

(D)All of these

Ans: D

45. As per the Indian Evidence Act, 1872, consider the following statements:

(1) Confession is a substantive piece of evidence.

(2) Confession made to a police officer is inadmissible.

(3) Retracted confession can be made sole basis of conviction if it is corroborated with material particular. Which of the above are correct ?

(1) and (2)

(B) (1) and (3)

(D) All of these

Ans: A

46. An accused person led a police officer and pointed out the place where stolen 47 articles or weapons which might have been used in the commission of the offence were found hidden. Choose the most appropriate response below as per the Indian Evidence Act, 1872.

(A) The conduct of the accused is statement and thus barred by Section 25.

(B) The conduct of the accused is admissible under Section 8

(D) Neither (A) nor (B) is correct.

Ans: B

47. As per the Indian Evidence Act, 1872, consider the following statements

(1) A judgment in rem decides legal character of a person.

(2) Judgment in personam decides rights and liability of parties to the proceedings as contested therein.

(3) Judgment in personam never creates res-judicata X Which of the above are correct?

(A) (1) and (2)

(B) (1) and (3)

(D) All of these

Ans: A

48. As per the Indian Evidence Act, 1872, consider the following statements:

(1) In criminal proceedings, the fact that the accused person has a bad character is irrelevant.

(2) Once evidence has been given that the accused is of a good character, facts suggesting that he is of a bad character becomes relevant.

(3) The restriction created by Section 54 would be applicable even if the bad is itself a fact character of any person in issue.

Which of the above are correct?

(A)(1) and (2)

(B) (1) and (3)

(D) All of these

Ans: A

49. Which of the following provision of the Indian Evidence Act, 1872 deals with dumb witness?

(A) Section 117

(B) Section 118

(D) Section 122

Ans: C

50. As per the Indian Evidence Act, 1872, consider the following statements:

(1) Communication between husband and wife during the marriage is privileged communication.

(2) Communication to be privileged, must be confidential in nature.

(3) Communication made during the subsistence of marriage will remain privileged even after dissolution of marriage.

Which of the above are correct ?

(A) (1) and (2)

(B) (1) and (3)

(D) All of these

Ans: B

Himachal Pradesh Judicial Services Exam 2025 Paper – II

Civil Law- II

1. The period of limitation for suits relating to contract is

(A) 3 years

(B) 5 years

(D) 11 years

Ans: A

2. A Hindu male M dies intestate leaving behind his mother’s father, mother’s mother, mother’s brother and mother’s sister. Who out of the following?

(A) Mother’s mother and mother’s brother

(B) Mother’s father and mother’s sister

(D) Mother’s father and mother’s mother

Ans: D

3. In the case of a continuing breach of contract or continuing tort, the limitation period is computed from the :

(A) first tortious act

(B) moment the last act of breach or tort continues

(D) date the tort is acknowledged

Ans: B

4. Assertion (A): Where any special or local law prescribes for any suit appeal or application a period of limitation different from period prescribed by the schedule the provisions of section 3 of Limitation Act, 1963 shall apply as if such period were the period prescribed by the schedule.

Reason (R): Where a special law prescribes a period of limitation for filling appeal but there is no provision therefore under Limitation Act, 1963, the period of limitation provided under the special law must be treated to be different from that under the Limitation Act.

Codes :

(A) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is correct explanation of (A)

(B) Both (A) and (R) are true but (R) is not correct explanation of (A)

(D) (A) is false but (R) is true

Ans: A

5. For the purpose of Limitation Act, 1963, which of the following claim(s) shall be treated as a separate suit ?

(A) Set-off

(B) Counter-claim

(D) None of these

Ans: B

6. In Section 14 of HPURCA-the tenant against whom the Controller has made an order for eviction on the ground of non-payment of rent due from him, shall not be evicted as a result of his order, if the tenant pays the amount due within a period of days from the date of order.

(A) 15

(B) 20

(D) 60

Ans: C

7. Statement I: Any person aggrieved by an order passed by the Controller may, within fifteen days from the date of such order or such longer period as the appellate authority may allow for reasons to be recorded in writing, prefer an appeal in writing to the appellate authority having jurisdiction

Statement II: Any person aggrieved by an order passed by the Controller may, within thirty days from the date of such order or such longer period as tow the appellate authority may allow for reasons to be recorded in writing, prefer 290 an appeal in writing to the appellate authority having jurisdiction.

Statement III: In computing the period, the time taken to obtain a certified copy of the order appealed against shall be excluded. Statement IV: In computing the period of fifteen days, the time taken to obtain a certified copy of the order appealed against shall be included.

(A) Statements I and IV are true while II and III are false.

(B) Statements II and IV are true while I and III are false.

(D) Statements II and III are true while l and IV are false.

Ans: C

8. For the purposes of this HPURCA, an appellate authority or a Controller appointed under this Act shall have the same powers of summoning and enforcing the attendance of witnesses and compelling the production of evidence as are vested in :

(A) A High Court

(B) A court under the Code of Civil Procedure

(D) Commercial Court

Ans: B

9. In accordance with the definition provided under Section 2(e) of the Himachal Pradesh Urban Rent Control Act, 1987, a “non-residential building” is:

(A) A building primarily used for business or trade, and not for any residential purposes.

(B) A building partly used for both business or trade and residential purposes, with the person conducting business also residing in the building.

(C) A building that is let out separately for residential and non-residential purposes, where both portions are treated equally under the law.

(D) A building that is used exclusively for residential purposes, irrespective of any business activities being conducted.

Ans: A

10. As per Section 17 of the Himachal Pradesh Urban Rent Control Act, 1987, when can a landlord recover possession of premises from a tenant who has not vacated after the agreed period, despite the tenant’s refusal to leave ?

(A) Only when the tenant voluntarily agrees to leave

(B) If the landlord obtains permission from the Controller and the tenant does not vacate after the agreed period.

(D) Only if the tenant has caused damage to the premises during the tenancy.

Ans: B

11. Which of the following statements are correct regarding the grounds for eviction under Section 14 of the Himachal Pradesh Urban Rent Control Act, 1987

A tenant can be evicted if they fail to pay rent within 15 days of receiving a demand notice, and the landlord has valid grounds for eviction the Act. under
A tenant can be evicted automatically if they have occupied the property for more than 10 years without a written agreement.
A tenant can be evicted solely for causing minor damage to the property, regardless of intent.

Choose the correct option

(A) Only (i)

(B) Both (i) and (ii)

(D)All (i), (ii) and (iii)

Ans: A

12. Match the following provisions under the Himachal Pradesh Urban Rent Control Act, 1987 with their corresponding descriptions:

Column-I Column-II

(a) Eviction of tenants (i) Section 14

(b) Fine or premium not to be charged for grant, (ii) Section 8

renewal or continuance of tenancy

or rented land in good repairs

d) Leases of vacant buildings (iv) Section 19

Codes :

(a) (b)(c) (d)

(A) iii ii iv i

(B) i iv iii ii

(D) iv I ii iii

Ans: C

13. The doctrine of lis pendens provides that, the pendency of a suit or proceedings shall be deemed to commence from :

(a) the date of the presentation of the plaint or institution of the proceeding in a court

(b) shall continue until the suit or proceeding is disposed by a “final decree or order”

(c) complete satisfaction of the order is obtained, unless it has become unobtainable by reason of the expiry of any period of limitation

(d) the purpose is to ensure that the process of the court is not subverted and rendered infructuous.

Choose the correct option :

(A) Only (a), (b) and (c)

(B) Only (a), (b) and (d)

(D) All of the above

Ans: D

14. Part performance would be applicable only in the following condition/conditions :

(a) If there is a contract to transfer for consideration any immovable property

(b) The said contract is in writing

(d) The transfer must have been completed in the manner prescribed by law

Choose the option that is (not) essential for the applicability of the doctrine of part performance:

(A) Only (a)

(B) Only (d)

(D) Only (b)

Ans: B

15. With reference to the Transfer of Property Act. 1882, match List I with List II and select the correct answer by using the codes given below the lists:

List-I List-II

Ram Baran v. Ram Mohit (i) Rule against perpetuity
Shanta Bai v. State of Bombay (ii) Spes Successionis
V. N. Sarin v. Ajeet K. Popali (iii) Partition whether transfer
Jumma Masjid Mercara v (iv) Immovable Property

Kodia Manindra Nath

Codes

(a) (b) (c) (d)

(A) (i) (iv) (iii) (ii)

(B) (i) (iv) (ii) (iii)

(D) (i) (iii) (iv) (ii)

Ans: A

16. Which of the following legislation defines ‘License’?

(A) The Transfer of Property Act, 1882

(B) The Indian Contract Act, 1872

(D) The Real Estate (Regulation & Development) Act, 2016

Ans: C

17. Under the Indian Contract Act, 1872, the doctrine of frustration applies to contracts that become impossible to perform after they are made. However, this doctrine would not apply if ;

(A) The impossibility arises due to unforeseen supervening circumstances entirely beyond the control of both parties.

(B)The parties knew of the likelihood of the event rendering the performance is impossible at the time of entering into the contract, and yet agreed to its performance unconditionally.

(C) The contract provides an express clause stipulating alternate arrangements in case the main obligations cannot be fulfilled.

(D) The obligations are divisible, and partial performance is still feasible without violating the essential purpose of the agreement.

Ans: B

18. The principle of “quantum meruit” under the Indian Contract Act, 1872, is invoked in cases where :

(A) A contract is terminated or becomes unenforceable, but one party has already partly performed, entitling them to reasonable compensation for the value of their performance.

(B) A contract is void ab initio due to a lack of lawful consideration, and the court orders restitution to prevent unjust enrichment.

(D) The parties to a contract have expressly agreed to resolve disputes through arbitration or conciliation.

Ans: A

19. A contract based on mutual mistake of fact under Section 20 of the Indian Contract Act, 1872, is :

(A) Void if the mistake is material and pertains to a fact essential to the agreement.

(B) Valid if the mistake is unilateral but involves a subject matter that is not essential to the contract.

(D) Voidable at the option of the party that has suffered a loss due to reliance on the mistaken belief

Ans: A

20. Shriman Shankar Deva married Ms. Mausmi in 2020 at Shimla and had been staying there together since then. However, he renounced the world by entering religious order of the sadhus and left the matrimonial home in 2023. During ongoing Mahakumbh, he was seen at Prayagraj. Under the Hindu Marriage Act, 1955, this would be a valid ground for which of the following:

(A) Judicial Separation

(B) Void Marriage

(D) All of these

Ans: C

21. Delay in institution can be condoned under Section 5 of the Limitation Act in respect of : (A) Appeals only

(B) Only Suits

(D) Appeals and applications only

Ans: D

22. The limitation for claiming compensation for defamation (libel) is

(A) Three years from the date when the libel is published

(B) Three years from the date when the published libel comes to the knowledge of the plaintiff (C) One year from the date when the published libel comes to the knowledge of the plaintiff or from the date when the damage for which compensation is claimed is caused, whichever is later

(D) One year from the date when the libel is published

Ans: D

23. Illustration I: A sells, by auction, to B, a horse which A knows to be unsound.24. A says nothing to B about the horse’s unsoundness.

Illustration II: B says to A-“If you do not deny it, I shall assume that the horse is sound”. A says nothing.

Choose the correct option with reference to the Indian Contract Act

(A) Only illustration I amounts to fraud while II does not

(B) Only illustration II amounts to fraud while I does not

(D) None of the illustrations is fraud

Ans: B

24. Statement I: An agreement in restraint of trade is void but sale of good will is an exception.

Statement II: An agreement in restraint of legal proceedings is void and arbitration is an exception.

Choose the correct option:

(A) Only statement I is correct and is provided under Section 26

(B) Only statement II is correct and is provided under Section 26

(D) Both the statements are correct and are provided under Sections 26 & 27respectively.

Ans: D

25. With reference to the Contract Act, 182 match columns A and B and choose the correct answer by using the codes given below the lists:

Column A Column B

(a) Sec. 7 (i) Free Consent

(b) Sec. 10 (ii) Contingent Contract

(d) Sec. 31 (iv) What agreements are contracts

Codes :

(a) (b) (c) (d)

(A) (iii) (iv) (ii) (i)

(B) (i) (iv) (ii) (iii)

(D) (ii) (iv) (i) (ii)

Ans: D

26. A continuing guarantee may at any time be revoked by the surety, as to future transactions:

(A) By notice to the creditor

(B) By notice to the debtor

(D) Anytime without notice either to the creditor or the debtor

Ans: A

27. Agreement, if made without consideration, is void. Which of the following is an exception to this?

(A) The consideration is inadequate

(B) Made in writing for natural love and affection and registered

(C) It is a promise, made in writing and signed by the person to be charged therewith, or by his agent generally or specially authorized in that behalf, to pay wholly or in part a debt of which the creditor might have enforced payment but for the law for the limitation of suits

(D) All of the above

Ans: B

28. As per the Limitation Act 1963, where once time has begun to run:

(A) The number of public holidays and court holidays need to be excluded

(B) No subsequent disability or inability to institute a suit or make an application stops it

(D) The parties can insert terms to stop the time from running

Ans: B

29. Choose the correct option with reference to a vested interest under TРA, 1882:

(A) It is defeated by the death of the transferee before he obtains possession

(B) It is not defeated by the death of the transferee before he obtains possession

(D)Both (B) and (C)

Ans: D

30. Amit transfers Rs. Five Lac to Bittu on condition that he shall marry with the consent of Chaman, Deepak and Dina. Bittu marries without the consent of Chaman, Deepak and Dina but obtains their consent after the marriage.

Choose the correct option with reference to the TРА, 1882.

(A) Bittu has not fulfilled the condition

(B) Bittu is deemed to have fulfilled the condition

(D) This proposition is not provided under the TPA but under some other law

Ans: A

31. A lessee accepts from his lessor a new lease of the property teased, to take effect during the continuance of the existing lease. Under TPA, this would be determination of the

(A) Forfeiture 32

(B) Express surrender

C Implied surrender

(D) Foreclosure

Ans: C

32. Read the following statements

(a) Since future option is an uncertain interest, it cannot be transferred. So, gift of future property is void.

(b) A gift comprising both existing and future property is void as to the latter.

(c) A gift of a thing to two or more donees, of whom one does not accept it, is void as to the interest which he would have taken had he accepted.

Choose the correct option

(A) Only (a) and (b)

(B) Only (b) and (c)

(D) All of these

Ans:D

33. Nemo dat quod non habet is the general rule in case of any valid transfer. However, the following section of the TPA, 1882 creates an exception to this in favour of bonafide non-gratuitous transferee :

(A) Sec. 40

(B) Sec. 41

(D) Sec. 43

Ans: D

34. Wagering agreements are void but not forbidden by law. The statement is:

(A) True

(B) False

(D) Not covered under Contract Act, 1872

Ans: C

35. In 1941, the colonial government had app appointed a four-member Hindu Law Committee to draft Hindu Code Bill under the Chairmanship of:

(A) Dr. B. R. Ambedkar

(B) N. Madhava Rau

(D) Sir B. N. Rau

Ans: D

36. A marriage solemnised between any two Hindus who are sapindas of each others hall be valid:

(A) If the custom or usage governing each of them permits a marriage between the two

(B) If the custom or usage governing any of them permits a marriage between the two.

(D) Neither (A) nor (B).

Ans: A

37. Match List I and List II as per the provisions of maintenance under HAMA, and select the correct answer by using the codes given below the lists :

List-I List-II

(a) Wife (i) Sec. 20

(b) Widowed Daughter-in-Law (ii) Seс. 18

(d) Dependents (iv) Seс. 22

Codes :

(a) (b) (c) (d)

(A) (ii) (iii) (i) (iv)

(B) (iv) (iii) (ii) (i)

(D) (i) (ii) (iii) (i)

Ans: A

38. Which of the following is correct of law of limitation ?

(A) Bars the judicial Remedy

(B) Limitation is a substantive law

(D) All of these

Ans: A

39. The period of Limitation to redeem or recover possession of immovable property mortgaged is

Twelve Years
Thirty Years
Three Years
One Year

Ans: B

40. The judgment of the High Court of Himachal Pradesh, Shimla in, M/s Prem Sagar v. The Oriental Insurance Company Ltd. relates to the following provision of the HPURCA:

(A) Sec. 2 (j)

(B) Sec. 4

(D). None of these

Ans: C*

41. As per HPURCA, conversion of a residential building into a non-residential building:

(A) Can be done by anyone

(B) Is not permissible

(D) Can be done but only with the permission in writing of the Controller

Ans: D

42. With reference to Sec. 20 of HPURCA, read the following statements :

Statement I: if the landlord refuses to deliver to the tenant a written receipt for the amount paid as rent, the tenant may file an application with the Controller within three months from the date of payment.

Statement II: The Controller may be order direct the landlord to pay damages that may double the amount of rent.

Choose the correct option :

(A) Both I and II

(B) Only I

(D) None of these

Ans: C

43. A directs B, his solicitor, to Sell his estate by auction, and to employ an auctioneer for the purpose. B names C, an auctioneer, to conduct the sale. For conducting he sale, choose the correct option :

(A) Cis a sub-agent of A

(B) C is an agent of B

(D) C is agent of A

Ans: D

44. Which of the following is not included in Immovable Property ?

(A) Land

(B) Buildings

D) Machinery imbedded in the earth

Ans: C

45. Under the Hindu Succession Act, 1956, which of the following would lead to a complete disinheritance of a legal heir?

(A) An heir converting to another religion.

(B) An heir murdering the person from whom they were to inherit.

(D) An heir renouncing their share explicitly through oral declaration.

Ans: B

46. With reference to the HPURC Act, match List I with List II and select the correct answer by using the codes given below the lists:

List-I List-II

(a) Definitions List-II (i) Sec. 2

(b) Fine/premium not to be charged grant,

renewal or continuance of tenancy for (ii) Sec. 13

supply or service

(d) Landlord’s duty to keep the building (iv) Sec. 8

or rented land ill good repairs

Codes :

(a) (b) (c) (d)

(A) (iii) (iv) (ii) (i)

(B) (i) (iii) (iv) (ii)

(D) (i) (iv) (iii) (ii)

Ans: D

47. In Shilpa Sailesh v. Varun Sreenivasan, 2023 SCC OnLine SC 544, the Supreme Court of India has delivered a judgment on the issue of irretrievable breakdown of marriage. Which of the following is true?

(A) In exercise of its powers under Article 142(1) of the Constitution of India, the Court can grant divorce on grounds of irretrievable breakdown of marriage only when both parties consent to such divorce.

(B) In exercise of its powers under Article 142(1) of the Constitution of India, the Court can grant divorce on grounds of irretrievable breakdown of marriage even when one party does not consent to such divorce.

(C) In exercise of its powers under Article 142(1) of the Constitution of India, the Court can grant divorce on grounds of irretrievable breakdown of marriage only when all the procedural and substantive requirements of divorce by mutual consent under the Hindu Marriage Act, 1955 are satisfied.

(D) In exercise of its powers under Article 142(1) of the Constitution of India, the Court cannot grant divorce on grounds of irretrievable breakdown of marriage.

Ans: B

48. Choose INCORRECT statement from the following :

(A) In case of an unmarried Hindu girl, the father is the natural guardian.

(B) In case of an illegitimate unmarried Hindu girl, the mother is the natural guardian.

(D) In case of a divorced Hindu girl, the mother is the natural guardian.

Ans: D

49. Which of the following statements are correct as per Hindu Marriage Act, 1955?

(i) In divorce cases, except for grounds under Section 13(1) (ii), (vi) and (vii),the court may order judicial separation, if deemed just.

(ii) In cases of judicial separation, the court may grant a decree of divorce based on the facts and circumstances of the case.

(ii) The court has the discretion to grant either a decree of divorce or judicial separation based on the circumstances of each case.

Choose the correct option:

(A) Only (i)

(B) Both (i) and (ii)

(D) None of these

Ans: B

50. In acquisition of easement by prescription under Limitation Act, the uninterrupted period provided for the use of light or air is

(A) 20 Years

(B) 18 years

(D) 16 years

Ans: A

Himachal Pradesh Judicial Services Exam 2025 Paper – III

Criminal Law- III

In which case Supreme Court held Section 377 of Indian Penal Code heldOTeSO1 unconstitutional to that extent it criminalizes consensual homo-sexual acts in private ?

(A) Suresh Kumar Kaushal Vs Naz Foundation

(B) Navtej Singh Johar & Ors. Vs Union of India

(D) Joseph Shine Vs Union of India

Ans: B

Under Section 105 of IPC, the right to private defence of property in cases of theft commences when a reasonable apprehension of danger to the property commences and : (A) Continues till the offender has affected his retreat with the property

(B) Continues till the assistance of public authorities is obtained

(D) All the above

Ans: D

A instigates B to burn Z’s house. B sets fire to the house and at the same time commits theft of property there. What will be the liability of A ?

(A) A is guilty of abetting the burning of house only

(B) A is guilty of abetting the burning of house as well as theft

(D) None of the above

Ans: A

Arrange the following cases chronologically in ascending order

(a) Jagmohan Singh Vs State of UP

(b) Machhi Singh Vs State of Punjab

(d) Rajendra Prasad Vs State of UP

A) (a), (c), (b), (d)

(B) (c), (a), (d), (b)

(D) (d), (c), (a), (b)

Ans: C

In which case it was held that duration of an anticipatory bail order does not end at the time and stage when the accused is summoned by the court, or when charges are framed, but can continue till the end of the trial ?

(A) Sushila Aggarwal Vs State of NCT of Delhi, (2020)

(B) State of Jharkhand Vs Lalu Prasad Yadav, (2017)

(D) Dattatraya Vs State of Maharashtra, (2020)

Ans: A

A, a police officer has a warrant of B. He asks C as to the identity of B.C knowingly tells A that D is B. And consequently A arrest D.

(A) Cis guilty of abetment by instigation

(B) C is guilty of abetment by aiding

(D) C is guilty of abetment by mischief

Ans: C

In which case it was held that the exception 2 of Section 375 of the Indian Penal Code, 1860 (IPC) is by itself an arbitrary and stated that a husband cannot have sexual intercourse with his wife if she is between 15 to 18 years of age.

(A) Harpal Singh Vs State of Himachal Pradesh

(B) State of Punjab Vs Gurmit Singh

(D) Independent Thought Vs Union of India

Ans: D

In which case it was held that bail once granted should not be cancelled in a mechanical and routine manner and supervening circumstances should be considered before cancelling bail?

(A) Usha Chakraborty & Anr. Vs State of West Bengal & Anr., (2023)

(B) Edmund S. Lyngdoh Vs State of Meghalaya, (2016)

(D) Vinubhai Haribhai Malviya Vs State of Gujarat, (2019)

Ans: D

Match the following sections of POCSO Act 2012 with maximum punishment provided under them :

(1) Section 8 (a) 10 years imprisonment

(2) Section 10 (b) 8 years imprisonment

(3) Section 14(4) (c) 7 years imprisonment

(4) Section 14(5) (d) 5 years imprisonment

(1) (2) (3) (4)

(A) (c) (d) (a) (b)

(B) (d) (c) (b) (a)

(D) (d) (a) (b) (c)

Ans: B

Which section of POCSO Act, provides for abetment of an offence or an attempt to commit an offence is also punishable under the Act?

(A) Section 17

(B) Section 15

(D) Section 18

Ans: D

In which case the Supreme Court issued guidelines with respect to trial and8012 disposal of cases under POCSO Act 2012?

(A) Gaya Prasad Pal @ Mukesh Vs State (2016)

(B) The State of Maharashtra Vs Bandu @ Daulat (2018)

(D) Alakh Alok Srivastava Vs Union of India and Others (2018)

Ans: D

Which section of POCSO Act 2012 provides for procedure in case of commission of offence by child and determination of age by Special Court ?

(A) 33

(B) 34

(D) 36

Ans: B

In which case it was held that the mere viewing, possession and storage of material depicting minors engaged in sexual activity constitutes an offence under the Protection of Children from Sexual Offences Act, 2012 (‘POCSO Act’)?

(A) Just Rights for Children Alliance Vs S. Harish

(B) Independent Thought Vs Union of India

(D) Nawabuddin Vs State of Uttarakhand

Ans: A

In how many days the evidence of the child shall be recorded after Special Court took cognizance of the offence under POCSO Act 2012?

(A) 15 days

(B) 30 days

(D) 60 days

Ans: B

Which section of the Juvenile Justice (Care and Protection of Children) Act, 2015 defines “Foster Care” ?

(A) 2(29)

(B) 2(34)

(D) 2(30)

Ans: A

Which section of the Juvenile Justice (Care and Protection of Children) Act, 2015defines “Place of Safety”?

(A) 2(42)

(B) 2(47)

(D) 2(46)

Ans: D

How many members shall be appointed in Child Welfare Committee as provided under section 27 of the Juvenile Justice (Care and Protection of Children)Act, 2015?

(A) 4

(B) 5

(D) 6

Ans: B

Which section of the Juvenile Justice (Care and Protection of Children) Act, 2015provides for “Eligibility of prospective adoptive parents” ?

(A) 57

(B) 58

(D) 60

Ans: A

Who is authorized to review the pendency of cases of the Juvenile Justice Board on quarterly basis under section 16 of Juvenile Justice (Care and Protection of Children) Act, 2015 ?

(A) High level committee consisting of the executive chairperson of the state legal services authority

(B) District Magistrate

(D) Chief Judicial Magistrate

Ans: D

Which section of Protection of Women from Domestic Violence Act, 2005 provides for “Duties and functions of Protection Officers”?

(A) 8

(B) 9

(D) 11

Ans: B

In which case it was held that “Retention of Stridhan by husband or his family amounts to continuing offence within the ambit of Protection of Women from Domestic Violence Act, 2005?

(A) S.R. Batra Vs Smt. Taruna Batra, (2007)

(B) Kunapareddy alias NookalaShanka Balaji Vs Kunapareddy Swarna Kumari,(2016)

(D) Krishna olinevalBhattarjee Vs Sarathi Choudhury, (2016)

Ans: D

Section 14 of the Protection of Women from Domestic Violence Act, 2005 provides for: (A) Application to Magistrate

(B) Protection orders

(D) Counselling

Ans: D

Which section of The Protection of Women from Domestic Violence Act, 2005 deals with duties of police officers, service providers and Magistrate?

(A) Section 7

(B) Section 4

(D) Section 9

Ans: C

Offence under The Pre-conception and Pre-natal Diagnostic Techniques(Prohibition of Sex Selection) Act, 1994 are:

(A) Non-cognizable, bailable and non-compoundable

(B) Cognizable, bailable and compoundable

(D) Cognizable, bailable and non-compoundable

Ans: C

In which case under The Pre-conception and Pre-natal Diagnostic Techniques(Prohibition of Sex Selection) Act, 1994, directions were given to search engines to block advertisement which are meant for diagnostic help of female fetus, andto develop techniques so that there would be auto-blocking of such advertisement?

(A) Sabu Mathew George Vs Union of India

(B) Voluntary Health Association of Punjab Vs Union of India

(D) Centre for Enquiry into Health and Allied Themes (CEHAT) Vs Union of India

Ans: A

What punishment is provided for Advertisement relating to reconception and renatal determination of sex under The Pre-conception and Pre-natal Diagnostic Techniques (Prohibition of Sex Selection) Act, 1994?

(A) Imprisonment which may extend to 5 years and with fine which may extend to Rs. 20,000

(B) Imprisonment which may extend to 7 years and with fine which may extend to Rs. 1,00,000

(D) Imprisonment which may extend to 3 years and with fine which may extend to Rs. 10,000

Ans: D

The leave granted during pendency of inquiry to the aggrieved woman under Section 12(1) of the Sexual Harassment of Women at Workplace Act, 2013 shall be to the leave she would be otherwise entitled.

(A) Concurrent

(B) Subsequent

(D) Any of the above

Ans: C

The accounts of the agency referred to in Section 8 of Sexual Harassment of Women at Workplace Act, 2013 shall be maintained and audited in such manner as may, in consultation with the :

(A) Advocate-General of the State

(B) Accountant General of the State

(D) None of the above

Ans: B

Aggrieved woman has to make a complaint in writing to the internal complaint committee or local committee within …………………. from the date of the incident and in case of a series of incidents, from the date of the last incident, subject to extension of time limit by the committee

(A) 3 months

(B) 1 month

(D) 45 days

Ans: A

Which rule of Central Civil Services (Conduct) Rules, provides for Prohibition of sexual harassment of working women?

(A) 3-C

(B) 4-C

(D) 7-C

Ans: A

Which stereotypes must be avoided by the judges ?

(A) Every woman wants to be a mother

(B) Good women are sexually chaste

(D) None of the above

Ans: D

Judges in should employ a victim-centered approach during the hearing, particularly cases relating to sexual offences and other gender-based violence, which include:

(A) Waive all court fees and other associated costs for financially dependent people who seek justice through courts

(B) Countering the employment of stereotypes by the lawyers on both sides and requiring them to be gender-sensitive

(D) None of the above

Ans: C*

When judges deciding should on the merits of a case or whether a case merits judicial review should

(A) Apply domestic law in compliance with international law and standards

(B) differentiated Explain why treatment applying a particular standard would cause illegitimate

(D) Both (A) and (B)

Ans: D

Which values for judges are provided under The Bangalore Principles of Judicial Conduct?

(a) Equality

(b) Propriety

(d) Competitiveness

(A) Only, (b) and (c)

(B) Only (a), (b) and (c)

(D) All of the above

Ans: D

Consider the following statements and identify the correct statement in relation to judicial conduct:

(a) A judge shall not practice law while holding a judicial office.

(b) A judge may form or join associations of judges or participate in other organizations representing the interests of judges.

(A) Only (a) is correct

(B) Only (b) is correct

(D) None is correct

Ans: C

Consider the following statements with reference to procedural laws

Statement I: Procedural laws are meant for the enforcement of rights and liabilities provided under substantive laws.

Statement II: Neither entire law of remedies belongs to procedure nor are rights merely confined to substantive laws.

(A) Both Statement I and Statement II are true and Statement II is correct explanation of Statement I

(B) Both Statement I and Statement II are true but Statement II is not correct explanation of Statement I

(D) Statement I is false but Statement II is true

Ans: B

An offence of kidnapping or abduction may be inquired into and tried

(A) Only by a court within whose local jurisdiction the person was kidnapped or abducted

(B) Only by a court within whose local jurisdiction the person was conveyed, concealed or

(D) In any court within territory of India

Ans: C

The prosecution witness was prosecuted for perjury in which of the following case :

(A) State (Through Cbi) Vs Santosh Kumar Singh (2006)

(B) Siddharth Vashish @ Manu Sharma Vs State NCT Delhi (2007))

(D) None of the above

Ans: B

Which of the following statement/s is/are correct about powers of Judicial Magistrates? (a) The Court of Judicial Magistrate First class may pass any sentence of imprisonment not exceeding three years or fine not exceeding ten thousand rupees

(b) The Court of Judicial Magistrate Second class may pass any sentence of imprisonment not exceeding two years or fine not exceeding five thousand rupees

(c) The Court of Judicial Magistrate Second class may pass any sentence of imprisonment not exceeding one year or fine not exceeding five thousand rupees

(d) The Court of Judicial Magistrate First class may pass any sentence of imprisonment not exceeding two years or fine not exceeding ten thousand rupees

(A) (a) and (b)

(B) (b) and (d)

(D) (c) and(d)

Ans: C

In which case it was held that it is a mandatory legal requirement to specify whether sentences awarded to an accused convicted for two or more offences, would run concurrently or consecutively?

(A) Sharad HiruKolambe Vs State of Maharashtra, (2018)

(B) Gagan Kumar Vs State of Punjab, (2019)

(D) Shivjee Singh Vs Nagendra Tiwari, (2010)

Ans: B

Consider the following statements about Charge as defined under Section 2(b) of CrPC, 1973

(a) Charge includes any head of charge when the charge contains more heads than one

(b) It is to tell the accused precisely and concisely as possible about the matter with which he is charged

(d) It must be written in the language of the Court

(A) (a), (b), (c) and(d) are correct

(B) (a), (c) and (d) are correct

(D) (a), (b) and (d) are correct

Ans: D*

In which case it was held that Conduct of Test Identification Parade is not violative of Article 20(3) of the Constitution of India?

(A) Mukesh Singh Vs State (NCT of Delhi), (2023)

(B) Anita Thakur Vs State of J & K, (2016)

(D) Sanjeev Kapoor Vs Chandana Kapoor, (2020)

Ans: A

Consider the following statements with reference to arrest procedure under CrPC:44.

Statement I : The purpose of criminal law is to prevent crimes.

Statement II : Under certain circumstances, even private person can arrest another person.

(A) explanation Both Statement of Statement I and Statement II are true and Statement II is correct I

(B) explanation Both Statement of Statement I and Statement II are true but Statement II is not correct I

(D) Statement I is false but Statement II is true

Ans: B

When outside a court its desires that summons issued by it shall be served at any local jurisdiction it shall ordinarily send such summons induplicate to :

(A) Magistrate of competent jurisdiction

(B) SHO of concerned police station

(D) None of the above

Ans: A

Which section of the HP Excise Act, 2011 provides for Prohibition of possession of liquor?

(A) 15

(B) 17

(D) 21

Ans: C

Which of the following act as the chairperson of National Board for Wild Life ?

(A) Minister in-charge of Forests and Wild Life

(B) Prime Minister

(D) Secretary to the Government of India in-charge of the Ministry or Department of the Central Government dealing with Forests and Wild Life

Ans: B

Which section of the The Wild Life (Protection) Act provides for prohibition on hunting ? (A) 8

(B) 9

(D) 24

Ans: B

Which Section/Sections of Indian Forest Act provides for Power to impose duty on timber and other forest-produce ?

(A) 39

(B) 41

(D) All of these

Ans: A

In which case the Supreme Court struck down Section 303 of IPC as unconstitutional ? (A) Machi Singh Vs State of Punjab

(B) Mithu Vs State of Punjab

(D) Gian Kaur Vs State of Punjab

Ans: B

A gives Z fifty strokes with a stick. Here A may have committed the offence of voluntarily causing hurt to Z by the whole beating and also by each of the blows which make up the whole beating. As per IPC which of the following should be the punishment?

(A) A is liable for every blow and should be imprisoned for fifty years one for each blow

(B) A is only liable for blows he delivered on the victim

(D) A should be separately punished for beating and delivering blows

Ans: C