Daily Quiz 31st July 2024

Answer: B
Explanation: Recently, a fire broke out at Indian Navy’s INS Brahmaputra warship, docked at Mumbai Dockyard

• Option (b) is correct: The Brahmaputra-class frigates (Type 16A or Project 16A) are guided-missile frigates of the Indian Navy, designed and built in India. They are an enhancement of the Godavari class. 3 ships of this class serve in the Indian Navy.The class and the lead ship, INS Brahmaputra, are named after the River Brahmaputra. Subsequent ships of the class, INS Betwa and INS Beas are also named for Indian rivers. Project-75 (India), simply referred to as the P-75(I) program, is a military acquisition initiative affiliated to India’s Ministry of Defence, aimed at the planned procurement of diesel-electric submarines for the Indian Navy.submarines under project 75 are: INS Kalvari, INS Vagsheer, INS Vela, , INS Khanderi, INS Karanj, and INS Vagir.

Answer: D

Explanation: The International Court of Justice (ICJ) said on July 19 that Israel’s occupation of the West Bank and East Jerusalem violates international law and its presence in Palestinian territories should end “as soon as possible.”

• Statement 1 is incorrect: The International Court of Justice is the main court of the United Nations (UN). It was created in June 1945 by the United Nations Charter, and operations got underway in April 1946. The ICJ carries out its responsibilities as a full court, but at the parties’ request, it may also set up ad hoc chambers to look into particular cases. The International Criminal Court(ICC) was established in 2001 by the Rome Statute. Both ICJ and ICC are headquartered at The Hague, Netherlands.
• Statement 2 is incorrect: The Court has two areas of jurisdiction: one is that it has the authority to decide on legal disputes brought before it by States in accordance with international law (jurisdiction in contentious cases); and the other is that it can give advisory opinions on legal issues upon request from United Nations bodies, specialized agencies, or another related organization that is permitted to do so. The Court’s authority only extends to states that are parties to the Court’s Statute or have accepted it under specific circumstances and are members of the United Nations. The ICJ resolves disputes between States, while the ICC prosecutes individuals for crimes.

Statement 3 is correct: The decisions of the ICJ are binding and final on the States Parties to the case and are not subject to appeal . A United Nations Member State acknowledges that it will abide by the Court’s ruling in any case to which it is a party by signing the Charter. The Security Council has the authority to suggest or decide on measures to be taken to give effect to the judgment if a State thinks the other party has failed to fulfil the obligations placed on it by a court judgment. However, it lacks the power to prosecute those who have been charged with war crimes or crimes against humanity.

Answer: D

Explanation:

• Statement 1 is correct: MSMEs are regulated under the Micro, Small & Medium Enterprises Development (MSMED) Act, 2006.

• Statement 2 is correct: Coir Board is a statutory body established by the Government of India under a legislation enacted by the Parliament namely Coir Industry Act 1953 for the promotion and development of Coir Industry as well as export market of coir and coir products in India as a whole. The board functions under the Ministry of Micro, Small and Medium Enterprises. Khadi and Village Industries Commission (KVIC), National Small Industries Corporation Limited, National Institute for Micro, Small and Medium Enterprises are some of the other statutory bodies under the Ministry of MSMEs.
• Statement 3 is correct: MSMEs should be engaged in the manufacture or production of goods, in any manner, pertaining to any industry specified in the First Schedule to the Industries (Development and Regulation) Act, 1951 or engaged in providing or rendering of any service or services. All bank loans to MSMEs conforming to the above guidelines qualify for classification under priority sector lending.

Answer: B

Explanation: The Supreme Court ruled against approval of the commercial sale and release of genetically modified mustard in India.

Option (b) is correct: Dhara Mustard Hybrid-11 (DMH-11) is a domestically developed transgenic mustard known as a Herbicide Tolerant (HT) variant. This hybrid results from crossbreeding the Indian mustard variety ‘Varuna’ with the East European variety ‘Early Heera-2’.  Two foreign genes, ‘barnase’ and ‘barstar’, sourced from the soil bacterium Bacillus amyloliquefaciens, which facilitate the creation of high-yielding commercial mustard hybrids. The barnase-barstar system is a novel way to develop male sterile (MS) lines and fertility restorer lines (RF) through genetic engineering.  DMH-11 has demonstrated a yield increase of about 28% over the national check and 37% over the zonal checks, and its usage has received approval from the Genetic Engineering Appraisal Committee (GEAC).

Answer: D

Explanation:

• Statement 1is correct:The Finance Bill is part of the Union Budget and contains information on all of the legal amendments required for the tax changes proposed by the Finance Minister. A money bill, on the other hand, is concerned with financial issues such as taxation, public expenditure etc.The LokSabha Speaker determines whether a financial bill qualifies as a money bill. It is necessary to get the President’s prior recommendation for a money bill. It can only be brought up in LokSabha.
• Statement 2 is incorrect: The constitution stipulates that a money bill can only include matters of taxation, borrowing, expenditure, and other related issues. Money Bill regulations govern the deposit of funds into and withdrawals from the Consolidated Fund of India (CFI) and the Contingency Fund of India (CFI). It functions to appropriate funds from the CFI. The provisions of the Money Bill apply to the declaration of any CFI-charged expenses or an increase in the amount of any such expenditure. The Provision of Money bill governs the receipt of monies on behalf of the CFI or the public account of India, their custody or disbursement, or the audit of those accounts.
• Statement 3 is incorrect: While Article 117 of the Indian Constitution governs Financial bills, Article 110 of the Constitution of India governs money bills. Financial bills are of two types: Category I: Includes any of the matters specified in Article 110 along with other matters. They must be introduced in the LokSabha but require the assent of both houses.

Category II: Involves expenditure from the Consolidated Fund but does not include the specific matters listed in Article 110. These also need approval from both houses. There is no provision for joint sitting for a money bill. However, there is a joint sitting option available for the passage of Financil bills.

Statement 4 is correct: The Supreme Court recently agreed to list petitions challenging the Money Bill route taken by the Centre to pass contentious amendments in the Parliament.The contentious legislation passed as Money Bills:Aadhaar Act, 2016, Amendments to the Prevention of Money Laundering Act, 2002, Amendments to the Foreign Contributions Regulations Act, 2010 andFinance Act, 2017 which brought about changes in the mode of appointment of judicial tribunals and also electoral bonds scheme.