Daily Quiz 29 November 2024
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Question 1 of 5
1. Question
1 pointsWith respect to the appoinment of judges in the Indian High Courts, consider the following statements:
1. The Constitution of India provides that every Judge of a High Court shall be appointed by the President by warrant under his hand and seal.
2. The Constitution of India provides for the qualifications of the Judges to appointed in High Court.
3. The strength of the High Court judges is determined by the Parliament of India.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?Correct
Answer: B
Explanation:
● Statement 1 is correct: Article 217 of the Constitution mentions that every Judge of a High Court shall be appointed by the President by warrant under his hand and seal. This is done after consultation with the Chief Justice of India (CJI), the Governor of the State and the Chief Justice of the High Court.
● Statement 2 is correct: Article-217 of the Constitution provides for the qualifications. These are:
o He should be a citizen of India
o He/she should have held Judicial office for at least 10 years.
o They should have for at least 10 years been an advocate of a High Court.
● Statement 3 is incorrect: The strength of the Supreme Court (SC) of India is determined by Parliament, while the strength of the High Court (HC) judges is determined by other factors. The Parliament of India has the power to increase or decrease the number of judges in the Supreme Court. This power is granted to Parliament by Article 124 of the Indian Constitution. The strength of a High Court is determined by other factors, such as the former Chief Justice of the High Court, other judges of the High Court, and the Governor of the state concernedIncorrect
Answer: B
Explanation:
● Statement 1 is correct: Article 217 of the Constitution mentions that every Judge of a High Court shall be appointed by the President by warrant under his hand and seal. This is done after consultation with the Chief Justice of India (CJI), the Governor of the State and the Chief Justice of the High Court.
● Statement 2 is correct: Article-217 of the Constitution provides for the qualifications. These are:
o He should be a citizen of India
o He/she should have held Judicial office for at least 10 years.
o They should have for at least 10 years been an advocate of a High Court.
● Statement 3 is incorrect: The strength of the Supreme Court (SC) of India is determined by Parliament, while the strength of the High Court (HC) judges is determined by other factors. The Parliament of India has the power to increase or decrease the number of judges in the Supreme Court. This power is granted to Parliament by Article 124 of the Indian Constitution. The strength of a High Court is determined by other factors, such as the former Chief Justice of the High Court, other judges of the High Court, and the Governor of the state concerned -
Question 2 of 5
2. Question
1 pointsConsider the following statements with respect to Tiger conservation in india:
- The state government must declare an area as a Tiger Reserve if the National Tiger Conservation Authority recommends it.
- The boundaries of a tiger reserve cannot be changed without approval from the National Board for Wild Life and the National Tiger Conservation Authority.
- Dholpur – Karauli Tiger Reserve – Rajasthan has been officially notified as the 56th and now the 3rd largest tiger reserve in India.
Which of the statements given abvove is/are correct?
Correct
Answer: B
Explanation:
- Statement 1 is correct: India is home to over 70% of the world’s tiger population, making it a crucial player in global tiger conservation. Project Tiger managed by the National Tiger Conservation Authority (NTCA) now has 56 tiger reserves in India. India is home to 80% of the world’s tigers. According to the Wild Life Protection Act of 1972, the state government must declare an area as a Tiger Reserve if the NTCA recommends it. The state must accept this recommendation.
- Statement 2 is correct: The boundaries of a tiger reserve cannot be changed without approval from the National Board for Wild Life and the NTCA. A state government cannot remove the status of a tiger reserve unless it is in the public interest and approved by both the National Board for Wild Life and the NTCA.
- Statement 3 is incorrect: The Guru Ghasidas-Tamor Pingla Tiger Reserve in Chhattisgarh has been officially notified as the 56th tiger reserve in India. It is located in the Chota Nagpur plateau and partly in the Baghelkhand plateau. This tiger reserve is connected to the Bandhavgarh Tiger Reserve in Madhya Pradesh to the West and Palamau Tiger Reserve in Jharkhand to the East. Guru Ghasidas-Tamor Pingla Tiger Reserve becomes the 3rd largest tiger reserve in the country after Nagarjunasagar-Srisailam Tiger Reserve in Andhra Pradesh and Manas Tiger Reserve in Assam.
55th: Dholpur – Karauli Tiger Reserve – Rajasthan
54th: Veerangana Durgavati Tiger Reserve – Madhya Pradesh.
Incorrect
Answer: B
Explanation:
- Statement 1 is correct: India is home to over 70% of the world’s tiger population, making it a crucial player in global tiger conservation. Project Tiger managed by the National Tiger Conservation Authority (NTCA) now has 56 tiger reserves in India. India is home to 80% of the world’s tigers. According to the Wild Life Protection Act of 1972, the state government must declare an area as a Tiger Reserve if the NTCA recommends it. The state must accept this recommendation.
- Statement 2 is correct: The boundaries of a tiger reserve cannot be changed without approval from the National Board for Wild Life and the NTCA. A state government cannot remove the status of a tiger reserve unless it is in the public interest and approved by both the National Board for Wild Life and the NTCA.
- Statement 3 is incorrect: The Guru Ghasidas-Tamor Pingla Tiger Reserve in Chhattisgarh has been officially notified as the 56th tiger reserve in India. It is located in the Chota Nagpur plateau and partly in the Baghelkhand plateau. This tiger reserve is connected to the Bandhavgarh Tiger Reserve in Madhya Pradesh to the West and Palamau Tiger Reserve in Jharkhand to the East. Guru Ghasidas-Tamor Pingla Tiger Reserve becomes the 3rd largest tiger reserve in the country after Nagarjunasagar-Srisailam Tiger Reserve in Andhra Pradesh and Manas Tiger Reserve in Assam.
55th: Dholpur – Karauli Tiger Reserve – Rajasthan
54th: Veerangana Durgavati Tiger Reserve – Madhya Pradesh.
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Question 3 of 5
3. Question
1 pointsThe ‘One Day One Genome’ initiative has recently been launched by the Department of Biotechnology. Which of the following are the correct objectives of this initiative?
- Map genome of one unique organism everyday
- Unlock microbe potential in healthcare and industrial processes
- Promoting Sustainable Agricultural Practices
- Public Accessibility of Data
Select the correct answer using the code given below?
Correct
Answer: B
Explanation:
Option (b) is correct: The ‘One Day One Genome’ initiative has been launched by the Department of Biotechnology (DBT) and the Biotechnology Research and Innovation Council (BRIC) on November 9, 2024. This project, unveiled during the first foundation day of BRIC at the National Institute of Immunology (NII) in New Delhi, aims to sequence unique bacterial genomes found across the country. The primary aim is to identify and sequence unique bacterial species found across India, each playing specific roles in their respective ecosystems. sequencing genomes, the initiative seeks to explore the untapped potential of microbes for producing valuable bioactive compounds, enzymes, and antimicrobial agents, which can revolutionize healthcare and industrial processes. Microbes are crucial for soil fertility, pest control, nitrogen fixation, and plant stress resistance. This initiative will contribute to sustainable agriculture by improving microbial interventions in crop production. One of the most significant aspects of the initiative is its commitment to free access to sequenced microbial genomes, alongside graphical summaries, infographics, and technical data. This ensures that the data is accessible not only to researchers but also to industry professionals, policymakers, and the general public.
Incorrect
Answer: B
Explanation:
Option (b) is correct: The ‘One Day One Genome’ initiative has been launched by the Department of Biotechnology (DBT) and the Biotechnology Research and Innovation Council (BRIC) on November 9, 2024. This project, unveiled during the first foundation day of BRIC at the National Institute of Immunology (NII) in New Delhi, aims to sequence unique bacterial genomes found across the country. The primary aim is to identify and sequence unique bacterial species found across India, each playing specific roles in their respective ecosystems. sequencing genomes, the initiative seeks to explore the untapped potential of microbes for producing valuable bioactive compounds, enzymes, and antimicrobial agents, which can revolutionize healthcare and industrial processes. Microbes are crucial for soil fertility, pest control, nitrogen fixation, and plant stress resistance. This initiative will contribute to sustainable agriculture by improving microbial interventions in crop production. One of the most significant aspects of the initiative is its commitment to free access to sequenced microbial genomes, alongside graphical summaries, infographics, and technical data. This ensures that the data is accessible not only to researchers but also to industry professionals, policymakers, and the general public.
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Question 4 of 5
4. Question
1 pointsWhich of the following is a 12-day national-level cybersecurity exercise aimed at strengthening India’s cybersecurity resilience organised by National Security Council Secretariat with the objective of training cybersecurity professionals in advanced defence, incident response, and decision-making?
Correct
Answer: A
Explanation:
- Option (a) is correct: Bharat NCX 2024 is a landmark initiative to fortify India’s cybersecurity resilience, organized by the National Security Council Secretariat (NSCS) in collaboration with Rashtriya Raksha University (RRU). It is a 12-day national-level cybersecurity exercise aimed at strengthening India’s cybersecurity resilience. The Chief Information Security Officers (CISOs) Conclave is another essential feature of Bharat NCX 2024. Its objectives are :
- Train cybersecurity professionals in advanced defence, incident response, and decision-making.
- Prepare leadership to handle national-level cyber crises.
The exercise builds leadership skills necessary for managing and mitigating cyber crises, ensuring that senior executives are better equipped to navigate the complexities of national cybersecurity incidents. M–Kavach 2 is a comprehensive mobile device security solution addressing emerging threats related to Android based mobile devices.
Incorrect
Answer: A
Explanation:
- Option (a) is correct: Bharat NCX 2024 is a landmark initiative to fortify India’s cybersecurity resilience, organized by the National Security Council Secretariat (NSCS) in collaboration with Rashtriya Raksha University (RRU). It is a 12-day national-level cybersecurity exercise aimed at strengthening India’s cybersecurity resilience. The Chief Information Security Officers (CISOs) Conclave is another essential feature of Bharat NCX 2024. Its objectives are :
- Train cybersecurity professionals in advanced defence, incident response, and decision-making.
- Prepare leadership to handle national-level cyber crises.
The exercise builds leadership skills necessary for managing and mitigating cyber crises, ensuring that senior executives are better equipped to navigate the complexities of national cybersecurity incidents. M–Kavach 2 is a comprehensive mobile device security solution addressing emerging threats related to Android based mobile devices.
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Question 5 of 5
5. Question
1 pointsWhich of the following statement with respect to Diamond is not correct?
Correct
Answer: C
Explanation:
Statements (a), (b) and (d) is correct while Statement (c) is incorrect: Diamonds are made of pure carbon, making them the only gemstone made of a single element. In Diamond, carbon atoms form a 3D, pyramid-like lattice, making it transparent, extremely hard and tightly bound. Russia is the world’s largest producer of diamonds, both by volume and by value, contributing to 25% of the global supply. Lab grown diamonds are created in controlled laboratory environments using methods like High Pressure High Temperature (HPHT) or Chemical Vapor Deposition (CVD). Lab-grown diamonds have the same optical, chemical, and physical characteristics as natural diamonds. Lab-grown diamonds are made of pure carbon, just like natural diamonds. This means that they have the same chemical composition and physical and optical properties as natural diamonds.
Incorrect
Answer: C
Explanation:
Statements (a), (b) and (d) is correct while Statement (c) is incorrect: Diamonds are made of pure carbon, making them the only gemstone made of a single element. In Diamond, carbon atoms form a 3D, pyramid-like lattice, making it transparent, extremely hard and tightly bound. Russia is the world’s largest producer of diamonds, both by volume and by value, contributing to 25% of the global supply. Lab grown diamonds are created in controlled laboratory environments using methods like High Pressure High Temperature (HPHT) or Chemical Vapor Deposition (CVD). Lab-grown diamonds have the same optical, chemical, and physical characteristics as natural diamonds. Lab-grown diamonds are made of pure carbon, just like natural diamonds. This means that they have the same chemical composition and physical and optical properties as natural diamonds.
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