Quiz: Daily Quiz 26 September 2023
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Question 1 of 5
1. Question
2 pointsWhich one of the following statements is correct about coffee production in India?
Correct
Explanation:
- Option (1) is incorrect: Coffee is the second most traded commodity in the world, after crude oil. The coffee plant is a member of the Rubiaceae family taxonomically. The coffee species are shrubs or small trees native to tropical and southern Africa and tropical Asia. India is the world’s sixth largest coffee producer, behind Brazil, Vietnam, Indonesia, Colombia, and Honduras.
- Option (2) is incorrect: India produces two types of coffee, Arabica and Robusta. Arabica has high market value than Robusta coffee due to its mild aromatic flavor. The share of Arabica and Robusta in Indian coffee production is approximately 30% and 70%, respectively. Coffee was introduced to India during the late seventeenth century. Karnataka is the largest producer accounting for about 70% of the total coffee production in India. Kerala and Tamil Nadu are the second and the third largest producers of coffee in India.
- Option (3) is correct: The International Coffee Organisation (ICO) was established in 1963 under the aegis of the United Nations and following the approval of the first International Coffee Agreement in 1962. It is the only intergovernmental organization for coffee, bringing together exporting and importing Governments. The ICO has 49 member countries including India. These countries represent 93% of world coffee production and 63% of world consumption.
- Option (4) is incorrect: Coffee plants require relative humidity of 70-80%. Soils which are deep, fertile, rich in organic matter, well drained and slightly acidic (Ph6.0-6.5) are preferred for coffee production.
Incorrect
Explanation:
- Option (1) is incorrect: Coffee is the second most traded commodity in the world, after crude oil. The coffee plant is a member of the Rubiaceae family taxonomically. The coffee species are shrubs or small trees native to tropical and southern Africa and tropical Asia. India is the world’s sixth largest coffee producer, behind Brazil, Vietnam, Indonesia, Colombia, and Honduras.
- Option (2) is incorrect: India produces two types of coffee, Arabica and Robusta. Arabica has high market value than Robusta coffee due to its mild aromatic flavor. The share of Arabica and Robusta in Indian coffee production is approximately 30% and 70%, respectively. Coffee was introduced to India during the late seventeenth century. Karnataka is the largest producer accounting for about 70% of the total coffee production in India. Kerala and Tamil Nadu are the second and the third largest producers of coffee in India.
- Option (3) is correct: The International Coffee Organisation (ICO) was established in 1963 under the aegis of the United Nations and following the approval of the first International Coffee Agreement in 1962. It is the only intergovernmental organization for coffee, bringing together exporting and importing Governments. The ICO has 49 member countries including India. These countries represent 93% of world coffee production and 63% of world consumption.
- Option (4) is incorrect: Coffee plants require relative humidity of 70-80%. Soils which are deep, fertile, rich in organic matter, well drained and slightly acidic (Ph6.0-6.5) are preferred for coffee production.
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Question 2 of 5
2. Question
2 pointsConsider the following statements about CE20 E13 engine:
- It is an upper-stage cryogenic engine used in Launch Vehicle Mark-3 rocket.
- It is India’s first cryogenic engine to work on a gas-generator cycle.
- It is being developed by Indian Space Research Organisation to use in the launch of Gaganyaan mission.
How many of the statements given above are correct?
Correct
Explanation:
- Statement 1 is correct: CE20 E13 Engine is a critical component of the Cryogenic Upper Stage (CUS) that powers the upper stage (C25) of the Launch Vehicle Mark-3 (LVM3) vehicle. It has been designed and developed by the Liquid Propulsion Systems Centre (LPSC), a subsidiary of ISRO. It is one of the most powerful upper-stage cryogenic engines in the world.
- Statement 2 is correct: It is the first Indian cryogenic engine to feature a gas-generator cycle. The gas-generator cycle is a type of rocket engine cycle that uses a small amount of propellant to power the pumps that feed the main combustion chamber. This type of cycle is very efficient and is used in many of the world’s most powerful rockets, such as the Ariane 5, the Falcon 9, and the Long March 5.
- Statement 3 is correct: The Indian Space Research Organisation (ISRO) successfully test fired the CE20 E13 engine, marking a crucial step towards the Gaganyaan Mission. Cryogenic engines are rocket engines that use a cryogenic fuel and oxidizer; that is, both its fuel and oxidizer are gases which have been liquefied and are stored at very low temperatures. The most common cryogenic propellants are liquid oxygen (LOX) and liquid hydrogen (LH2).
Incorrect
Explanation:
- Statement 1 is correct: CE20 E13 Engine is a critical component of the Cryogenic Upper Stage (CUS) that powers the upper stage (C25) of the Launch Vehicle Mark-3 (LVM3) vehicle. It has been designed and developed by the Liquid Propulsion Systems Centre (LPSC), a subsidiary of ISRO. It is one of the most powerful upper-stage cryogenic engines in the world.
- Statement 2 is correct: It is the first Indian cryogenic engine to feature a gas-generator cycle. The gas-generator cycle is a type of rocket engine cycle that uses a small amount of propellant to power the pumps that feed the main combustion chamber. This type of cycle is very efficient and is used in many of the world’s most powerful rockets, such as the Ariane 5, the Falcon 9, and the Long March 5.
- Statement 3 is correct: The Indian Space Research Organisation (ISRO) successfully test fired the CE20 E13 engine, marking a crucial step towards the Gaganyaan Mission. Cryogenic engines are rocket engines that use a cryogenic fuel and oxidizer; that is, both its fuel and oxidizer are gases which have been liquefied and are stored at very low temperatures. The most common cryogenic propellants are liquid oxygen (LOX) and liquid hydrogen (LH2).
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Question 3 of 5
3. Question
2 pointsWith reference to conservation of monuments in India, consider the following statements:
- As per the Ancient Monuments and Archaeological Sites and Remains Act, any new construction is prohibited in an area of 200 metres around centrally protected monuments.
- The Archaeological Survey of India is responsible for approving construction work inside centrally protected monuments.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Correct
Explanation:
The Parliamentary Standing Committee on Transport, Tourism and Culture in its 359th Report on the Functioning of Archaeological Survey of India’ has recommended the list of monuments that has to be rationalised and categorised on the basis of their national significance, unique architectural value and specific heritage content.
- Statement 1 is incorrect: Ancient Monuments and Archaeological Sites and Remains (AMASR) Act, 1958 aims to protect and preserve archaeological and historical sites and monuments of India. Under the provisions of the act, 100 meters area from the protected limit of centrally protected monuments of India/site has been declared as prohibited area for new constructions. Beyond this, the 200 meters area has been declared as a Regulated Area.
- Statement 2 is incorrect: No construction work or related activity is generally permitted in these prohibited and regulated areas unless a specific approval is taken from the National Monuments Authority (NMA). NMA under the Ministry of Culture has been set up as per provisions of AMASR (Amendment and Validation) Act, 2010 which was enacted in March, 2010.
Incorrect
Explanation:
The Parliamentary Standing Committee on Transport, Tourism and Culture in its 359th Report on the Functioning of Archaeological Survey of India’ has recommended the list of monuments that has to be rationalised and categorised on the basis of their national significance, unique architectural value and specific heritage content.
- Statement 1 is incorrect: Ancient Monuments and Archaeological Sites and Remains (AMASR) Act, 1958 aims to protect and preserve archaeological and historical sites and monuments of India. Under the provisions of the act, 100 meters area from the protected limit of centrally protected monuments of India/site has been declared as prohibited area for new constructions. Beyond this, the 200 meters area has been declared as a Regulated Area.
- Statement 2 is incorrect: No construction work or related activity is generally permitted in these prohibited and regulated areas unless a specific approval is taken from the National Monuments Authority (NMA). NMA under the Ministry of Culture has been set up as per provisions of AMASR (Amendment and Validation) Act, 2010 which was enacted in March, 2010.
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Question 4 of 5
4. Question
2 pointsConsider the following statements about Launch Vehicle Mark-3 (LVM-3):
- LVM-3 is the first Indian launch vehicle to be equipped with liquid fuel stages.
- It is a three-stage launch vehicle developed by Indian Space Research Organisation.
- It can launch a 4,000-kilogram class of satellites into a geosynchronous transfer orbit.
How many of the statements given above are correct?
Correct
Explanation:
- Statement 1 is incorrect: The Launch Vehicle Mark-3 (LVM3), previously referred as the Geosynchronous Satellite Launch Vehicle Mark III (GSLV Mk3), is a medium-lift launch vehicle. Polar Satellite Launch Vehicle (PSLV) was the first Indian launch vehicle to be equipped with liquid stages. The indigenously developed Cryogenic Upper Stage (CUS) forms the third stage of GSLV Mk II. ISRO has renamed the GSLV Mark-III as Launch Vehicle Mark-III (LMV-3).
- Statement 2 is correct: Launch Vehicle Mark-3 is a three-stage launch vehicle developed by the Indian Space Research Organisation. It consists of two solid propellant S200 strap-ons on its sides and core stage comprising L110 liquid stage and C25 cryogenic stage.
- Statement 3 is correct: Launch Vehicle Mark-3 is capable of launching 4,000-kilogram class of satellites into GTO (Geosynchronous Transfer Orbit) and 8,000 kgs of payloads into LEO. The LVM3 will go everywhere, that is, in GEO, Medium Earth orbit (MEO), LEO, and missions to the moon, sun.
Incorrect
Explanation:
- Statement 1 is incorrect: The Launch Vehicle Mark-3 (LVM3), previously referred as the Geosynchronous Satellite Launch Vehicle Mark III (GSLV Mk3), is a medium-lift launch vehicle. Polar Satellite Launch Vehicle (PSLV) was the first Indian launch vehicle to be equipped with liquid stages. The indigenously developed Cryogenic Upper Stage (CUS) forms the third stage of GSLV Mk II. ISRO has renamed the GSLV Mark-III as Launch Vehicle Mark-III (LMV-3).
- Statement 2 is correct: Launch Vehicle Mark-3 is a three-stage launch vehicle developed by the Indian Space Research Organisation. It consists of two solid propellant S200 strap-ons on its sides and core stage comprising L110 liquid stage and C25 cryogenic stage.
- Statement 3 is correct: Launch Vehicle Mark-3 is capable of launching 4,000-kilogram class of satellites into GTO (Geosynchronous Transfer Orbit) and 8,000 kgs of payloads into LEO. The LVM3 will go everywhere, that is, in GEO, Medium Earth orbit (MEO), LEO, and missions to the moon, sun.
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Question 5 of 5
5. Question
2 pointsRecently seen in news, the ‘Pratibha Parv’ initiative was launched by which one of the following Indian state?
Correct
Explanation:
- Option (4) is correct: Pratibha Parv is a comprehensive initiative for the assessment of teaching and learning, and evaluation of educational facilities and activities in government schools in Madhya Pradesh. The initiative was launched in 2011 by the School Education Department, Government of Madhya Pradesh. The main objectives of are:
- Assess the quality of education in government schools
- Identify areas for improvement
- Develop strategies to improve the quality of education
- Promote community participation in education
Incorrect
Explanation:
- Option (4) is correct: Pratibha Parv is a comprehensive initiative for the assessment of teaching and learning, and evaluation of educational facilities and activities in government schools in Madhya Pradesh. The initiative was launched in 2011 by the School Education Department, Government of Madhya Pradesh. The main objectives of are:
- Assess the quality of education in government schools
- Identify areas for improvement
- Develop strategies to improve the quality of education
- Promote community participation in education
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