Daily Quiz 26 November 2024
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Question 1 of 5
1. Question
1 pointsConsider the following statements with respect to the Armed Forces Special Powers Act (AFSPA):
1. The Act in its original form was promulgated by the British in response to the Khilafat and Non-Cooperation movement in 1920.
2. The Act is enforced by the Ministry of Home Affairs.
3. The armed forces and the Central Armed Police Forces deployed in specified disturbed areas can fire and kill anyone acting in accordance with law.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?Correct
Answer: C
Explanation:
- Statement 1 is incorrect: Armed Forces Special Powers Act (AFSPA), 1958 is an act of the Parliament that grants special powers to the Indian Armed Forces to maintain public order in “disturbed areas”. The main aim of the act is to tackle the secessionist activities in the north-eastern states. The Act in its original form was promulgated by the British in response to the Quit India movement in 1942. After Independence, the act was retained, first brought in as an ordinance and then notified as an Act in 1958. The initial aim of the AFSPA was to overcome the Naga movement. Later, it was extended to other disturbed areas in the country.
- Statement 2 is correct: The Act is enforced by the Ministry of Home Affairs. A disturbed area is declared under Section 3 of the AFSPA. An area can be disturbed due to differences or disputes between members of different religious, racial, language or regional groups or castes or communities. The Union Government or the Governor of the State or administrator of the Union Territory can declare the whole or part of the State or Union Territory as a disturbed area.
Statement 3 is correct: The armed forces and the Central Armed Police Forces deployed in specified “disturbed areas” can fire and kill anyone acting in accordance with law. They can arrest anyone based on suspicion, without a warrant. Individuals arrested and taken into custody under this act have to be handed over to the officer in charge of the nearest police station. Security forces can search any premises without a warrant. They can stop and search any vehicle based on suspicion.
Incorrect
Answer: C
Explanation:
- Statement 1 is incorrect: Armed Forces Special Powers Act (AFSPA), 1958 is an act of the Parliament that grants special powers to the Indian Armed Forces to maintain public order in “disturbed areas”. The main aim of the act is to tackle the secessionist activities in the north-eastern states. The Act in its original form was promulgated by the British in response to the Quit India movement in 1942. After Independence, the act was retained, first brought in as an ordinance and then notified as an Act in 1958. The initial aim of the AFSPA was to overcome the Naga movement. Later, it was extended to other disturbed areas in the country.
- Statement 2 is correct: The Act is enforced by the Ministry of Home Affairs. A disturbed area is declared under Section 3 of the AFSPA. An area can be disturbed due to differences or disputes between members of different religious, racial, language or regional groups or castes or communities. The Union Government or the Governor of the State or administrator of the Union Territory can declare the whole or part of the State or Union Territory as a disturbed area.
Statement 3 is correct: The armed forces and the Central Armed Police Forces deployed in specified “disturbed areas” can fire and kill anyone acting in accordance with law. They can arrest anyone based on suspicion, without a warrant. Individuals arrested and taken into custody under this act have to be handed over to the officer in charge of the nearest police station. Security forces can search any premises without a warrant. They can stop and search any vehicle based on suspicion.
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Question 2 of 5
2. Question
1 pointsConsider the following statements with respect to the Exercise Sea vigil:
- It is a maritime exercise between India and Vietnam to check China’s presence in the South China Sea.
- It focuses on strengthening the security of coastal assets like ports and oil rigs.
- It engages complete coastal security infrastructure and all maritime stakeholders including the fishing community.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Correct
Answer: B
Explanation:
- Statement 1 is incorrect: The Indian Navy is set to conduct the fourth edition of the ‘Pan-India’ Coastal Defence Exercise ‘Sea Vigil-24’. Exercise Sea Vigil is a coastal defense exercise conducted by the Indian Navy to test the country’s coastal security readiness. The exercise involves a variety of stakeholders, including the Navy, Coast Guard, other ministries, and intelligence agencies. It was conceptualised in 2018 to validate various measures that have been instituted towards enhancing maritime security since ‘26/11’. The concept of ‘Sea Vigil’ is to activate the Coastal Security apparatus across India and assess the overarching Coastal Defence mechanism.
Statements 2 and 3 are correct: The exercise focuses on strengthening the security of coastal assets like ports, oil rigs, Single Point Moorings, Cable Landing Points and critical coastal infrastructure including the coastal population. This year participation by other Services (Indian Army and Air Force) and planned deployment of large number of ships and aircraft have enhanced the tempo of the exercise. It aims to engage complete coastal security infrastructure and all maritime stakeholders, including the fishing community and coastal populace, simultaneously. One of the aims of the exercise is to raise awareness amongst coastal communities about maritime security, and thus, involvement of fishing communities, coastal populace, and students from NCC and Bharat Scouts and Guides will add to the fervour of the endeavour.
Incorrect
Answer: B
Explanation:
- Statement 1 is incorrect: The Indian Navy is set to conduct the fourth edition of the ‘Pan-India’ Coastal Defence Exercise ‘Sea Vigil-24’. Exercise Sea Vigil is a coastal defense exercise conducted by the Indian Navy to test the country’s coastal security readiness. The exercise involves a variety of stakeholders, including the Navy, Coast Guard, other ministries, and intelligence agencies. It was conceptualised in 2018 to validate various measures that have been instituted towards enhancing maritime security since ‘26/11’. The concept of ‘Sea Vigil’ is to activate the Coastal Security apparatus across India and assess the overarching Coastal Defence mechanism.
Statements 2 and 3 are correct: The exercise focuses on strengthening the security of coastal assets like ports, oil rigs, Single Point Moorings, Cable Landing Points and critical coastal infrastructure including the coastal population. This year participation by other Services (Indian Army and Air Force) and planned deployment of large number of ships and aircraft have enhanced the tempo of the exercise. It aims to engage complete coastal security infrastructure and all maritime stakeholders, including the fishing community and coastal populace, simultaneously. One of the aims of the exercise is to raise awareness amongst coastal communities about maritime security, and thus, involvement of fishing communities, coastal populace, and students from NCC and Bharat Scouts and Guides will add to the fervour of the endeavour.
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Question 3 of 5
3. Question
1 pointsAmong the following plants, which one of the following does not share a common defining characteristic with the other three?
Correct
Answer: D
Explanation:
Option (d) is correct: Amorphophallus titanum, commonly known as the titan arum or corpse flower, is one of the largest and most fascinating flowering plants in the world. It is a rare species, which blooms once in a decade. It is also called the ‘corpse flower’ because it smells like rotting flesh to attract pollinators. It is one of the largest in the world, growing over 10 ft. in height. It is native to western Sumatra, Indonesia. IUCN Status is Endangered. The other three plant species are common invasive species in india and have been asked in previous years questions. Invasive plants are non-native plants that can spread and cause harm to the environment, economy, or human health
Incorrect
Answer: D
Explanation:
Option (d) is correct: Amorphophallus titanum, commonly known as the titan arum or corpse flower, is one of the largest and most fascinating flowering plants in the world. It is a rare species, which blooms once in a decade. It is also called the ‘corpse flower’ because it smells like rotting flesh to attract pollinators. It is one of the largest in the world, growing over 10 ft. in height. It is native to western Sumatra, Indonesia. IUCN Status is Endangered. The other three plant species are common invasive species in india and have been asked in previous years questions. Invasive plants are non-native plants that can spread and cause harm to the environment, economy, or human health
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Question 4 of 5
4. Question
1 pointsConsider the following statements with respect to the term BASIC countries recently seen in news:
- It is a group of four emerging economies of South Asia that have come together to collectively address global climate change issues.
- It originated when the nations decided to act jointly at the Copenhagen climate summit if their common minimum position was not met.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Correct
Answer: B
Explanation:
- Statement 1 is incorrect: The term BASIC refers to a group of four emerging economies—Brazil, South Africa, India, and China—that have come together to collectively address global climate change issues. The BASIC countries have diverse environmental, economic, and social conditions, but they share a common goal of balancing sustainable development with the urgent need to address climate change. They emphasize the principle of “common but differentiated responsibilities and demand adequate financial support from developed nations to fund climate adaptation and mitigation projects.
Statement 2 is correct: The foundation of BASIC countries was laid in November 2009 during the 15th Conference of Parties (COP15) in Copenhagen. The four committed to act jointly at the Copenhagen climate summit (COP 15 of UNFCCC), including a possible united walk-out if their common minimum position was not met by the developed nations. BASIC countries have asked developed countries to honour their commitments to provide climate finance rather than “diluting obligations” and strongly opposed efforts to transfer financial obligations to developing nations during the COP29 negotiations.
Incorrect
Answer: B
Explanation:
- Statement 1 is incorrect: The term BASIC refers to a group of four emerging economies—Brazil, South Africa, India, and China—that have come together to collectively address global climate change issues. The BASIC countries have diverse environmental, economic, and social conditions, but they share a common goal of balancing sustainable development with the urgent need to address climate change. They emphasize the principle of “common but differentiated responsibilities and demand adequate financial support from developed nations to fund climate adaptation and mitigation projects.
Statement 2 is correct: The foundation of BASIC countries was laid in November 2009 during the 15th Conference of Parties (COP15) in Copenhagen. The four committed to act jointly at the Copenhagen climate summit (COP 15 of UNFCCC), including a possible united walk-out if their common minimum position was not met by the developed nations. BASIC countries have asked developed countries to honour their commitments to provide climate finance rather than “diluting obligations” and strongly opposed efforts to transfer financial obligations to developing nations during the COP29 negotiations.
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Question 5 of 5
5. Question
1 pointsConsider the following statements with respect to the Munda Rebellion also known as Ulgulan:
- Loss of ancestral lands under the Khuntkatti system was one of the primary cause of the rebellion.
- The immediate cause of the rebellion was passing of the Chotanagpur Tenancy Act.
- The Beth Begari system was abolished in the aftermath of the rebellion.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Correct
Answer: C
Explanation: Birsa Munda was born on November 15, 1874, in Ulihatu, a small village in present-day Jharkhand, into a tribal Munda family.
- Statement 1 is correct: The Munda Rebellion was a major tribal uprising led by Birsa Munda against the British colonial government, landlords, moneylenders, and Christian missionaries. The rebellion took place in the region that is now Jharkhand, primarily in the areas surrounding Ranchi, Khunti, and Gumla. Land Alienation was one of the primary cause. The British and their allies, the zamindars and moneylenders, were encroaching upon the tribal lands through exploitation and unfair land revenue policies. This led to the loss of ancestral lands under the Khuntkatti system, which was the traditional land tenure system of the Mundas.
Statement 2 is incorrect while Statement 3 is correct: The Munda Rebellion was a critical moment in tribal resistance against colonial oppression. The rebellion led to the passing of the Chotanagpur Tenancy Act (1908), which provided legal safeguards for tribal land rights and restricted the transfer of land to non-tribals. This act was a major victory for the tribal people and prevented further exploitation of their land. The Beth Begari system (forced labor) was also abolished in the aftermath of the rebellion. The Munda tribe, and other indigenous communities, found strength in their cultural roots, which fostered unity and pride.
Incorrect
Answer: C
Explanation: Birsa Munda was born on November 15, 1874, in Ulihatu, a small village in present-day Jharkhand, into a tribal Munda family.
- Statement 1 is correct: The Munda Rebellion was a major tribal uprising led by Birsa Munda against the British colonial government, landlords, moneylenders, and Christian missionaries. The rebellion took place in the region that is now Jharkhand, primarily in the areas surrounding Ranchi, Khunti, and Gumla. Land Alienation was one of the primary cause. The British and their allies, the zamindars and moneylenders, were encroaching upon the tribal lands through exploitation and unfair land revenue policies. This led to the loss of ancestral lands under the Khuntkatti system, which was the traditional land tenure system of the Mundas.
Statement 2 is incorrect while Statement 3 is correct: The Munda Rebellion was a critical moment in tribal resistance against colonial oppression. The rebellion led to the passing of the Chotanagpur Tenancy Act (1908), which provided legal safeguards for tribal land rights and restricted the transfer of land to non-tribals. This act was a major victory for the tribal people and prevented further exploitation of their land. The Beth Begari system (forced labor) was also abolished in the aftermath of the rebellion. The Munda tribe, and other indigenous communities, found strength in their cultural roots, which fostered unity and pride.
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