Daily Quiz 23 August 2024
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Question 1 of 5
1. Question
1 pointsConsider the following statements with respect to the Open Market Sales scheme recently seen in news:
1. Food Corporation of India (FCI) sells surplus wheat and rice in the open market through e-auction.
2. State governments can directly purchase rice from the Food Corporation of India (FCI) without participating in e-auction.
3. State governments cannot participate for needs beyond Targeted Public Distribution Scheme (TPDS) and Other Welfare Schemes (OWS).
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?Correct
Answer: B
Explanation:
- Statements 1 and 2 are correct: Open Market Sale Scheme (OMSS) – Domestic refers to offering of food grains (wheat & rice) in the open market at prices, fixed by the Ministry of Ministry of Consumer Affairs, Food & Public Distribution through e-auction in order to control the price in the market by providing food grains at reduced prices with the aim to curb inflation. Union Food and Consumer Affairs Minister Pralhad Joshi recently announced that State governments can directly purchase rice from the Food Corporation of India (FCI) under the Open Market Sale Scheme (Domestic) from Thursday without participating in e-auction.
Statement 3 isincorrect: Weekly e-auctions are done on NCDEX (National Commodity and Derivatives Exchange Limited) platform.The scheme is open to bulk consumers and private traders. State governments can participate for needs beyond Targeted Public Distribution Scheme (TPDS) and Other Welfare Schemes (OWS). Reserve price is set by the government (bids cannot be lower).
Incorrect
Answer: B
Explanation:
- Statements 1 and 2 are correct: Open Market Sale Scheme (OMSS) – Domestic refers to offering of food grains (wheat & rice) in the open market at prices, fixed by the Ministry of Ministry of Consumer Affairs, Food & Public Distribution through e-auction in order to control the price in the market by providing food grains at reduced prices with the aim to curb inflation. Union Food and Consumer Affairs Minister Pralhad Joshi recently announced that State governments can directly purchase rice from the Food Corporation of India (FCI) under the Open Market Sale Scheme (Domestic) from Thursday without participating in e-auction.
Statement 3 isincorrect: Weekly e-auctions are done on NCDEX (National Commodity and Derivatives Exchange Limited) platform.The scheme is open to bulk consumers and private traders. State governments can participate for needs beyond Targeted Public Distribution Scheme (TPDS) and Other Welfare Schemes (OWS). Reserve price is set by the government (bids cannot be lower).
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Question 2 of 5
2. Question
1 pointsWhich of the following statement best describes the term Surrogate Advertising recently seen in news?
Correct
Answer: D
Explanation:
Option (d) is correct: Surrogate advertising is a marketing strategy where a company promotes a product or brand indirectly, often due to restrictions on advertising a specific item. This is common for products like alcohol, tobacco, or pharmaceuticals, where direct advertising is heavily regulated or banned in certain regions. Surrogate advertisements promote a brand or a product that is similar to the banned product, but not the same, in order to create brand awareness and visibility.The Health Ministry recently asked both the Sports Authority of India (SAI) and the Board of Control for Cricket in India (BCCI) to bring in measures to prevent surrogate advertisement of tobacco and or alcohol related products by sportspersons. (The other three options are dark patterns.)
Incorrect
Answer: D
Explanation:
Option (d) is correct: Surrogate advertising is a marketing strategy where a company promotes a product or brand indirectly, often due to restrictions on advertising a specific item. This is common for products like alcohol, tobacco, or pharmaceuticals, where direct advertising is heavily regulated or banned in certain regions. Surrogate advertisements promote a brand or a product that is similar to the banned product, but not the same, in order to create brand awareness and visibility.The Health Ministry recently asked both the Sports Authority of India (SAI) and the Board of Control for Cricket in India (BCCI) to bring in measures to prevent surrogate advertisement of tobacco and or alcohol related products by sportspersons. (The other three options are dark patterns.)
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Question 3 of 5
3. Question
1 pointsIndia is set to roll out a new regimen for drug-resistant tuberculosis(TB). With respect to TB, consider the following statements:
- It is a bacterial infection that most commonly affects lungs but can affect other organs too.
- Drug resistant TB is spread the same way that drug-susceptible TB is spread.
- TB is a treatable disease but, currently there is no licensed vaccination for the prevention of TB in India.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Correct
Answer: A
Explanation:
- Statement 1 is correct: TB is caused by a bacterium called Mycobacterium tuberculosis, belonging to the Mycobacteriaceae family. TB spreads from person to person through the air. When people with lung TB cough, sneeze or spit, they propel the TB germs into the air. In humans, TB most commonly affects the lungs (pulmonary TB), but it can also affect other organs (extra-pulmonary TB).
- Statement 2 is incorrect: Drug-resistant TB occurs when bacteria become resistant to the drugs used to treat TB. This means that the drug can no longer kill the TB bacteria. DR-TB is spread the same way that drug-susceptible TB is spread. DR-TB can also occur when the drugs used to treat TB are misused or mismanaged.
MDR TB: MDR-TB does not respond to at least isoniazid and rifampicin, the 2 most powerful anti-TB drugs.
XDR TB: People who are resistant to isoniazid and rifampicin, plus any fluoroquinolone and at least one of three injectable second-line drugs (amikacin, kanamycin, capreomycin) are said to have XDR-TB.
Statement 3 is incorrect: TB is a treatable and curable disease. Currently, Bacille Calmette-Guérin (BCG) is the only licensed vaccine available for the prevention of TB. Four major drugs used in TB treatment: Isoniazid (INH), Rifampicin, Pyrazinamide & Ethambutol.
Incorrect
Answer: A
Explanation:
- Statement 1 is correct: TB is caused by a bacterium called Mycobacterium tuberculosis, belonging to the Mycobacteriaceae family. TB spreads from person to person through the air. When people with lung TB cough, sneeze or spit, they propel the TB germs into the air. In humans, TB most commonly affects the lungs (pulmonary TB), but it can also affect other organs (extra-pulmonary TB).
- Statement 2 is incorrect: Drug-resistant TB occurs when bacteria become resistant to the drugs used to treat TB. This means that the drug can no longer kill the TB bacteria. DR-TB is spread the same way that drug-susceptible TB is spread. DR-TB can also occur when the drugs used to treat TB are misused or mismanaged.
MDR TB: MDR-TB does not respond to at least isoniazid and rifampicin, the 2 most powerful anti-TB drugs.
XDR TB: People who are resistant to isoniazid and rifampicin, plus any fluoroquinolone and at least one of three injectable second-line drugs (amikacin, kanamycin, capreomycin) are said to have XDR-TB.
Statement 3 is incorrect: TB is a treatable and curable disease. Currently, Bacille Calmette-Guérin (BCG) is the only licensed vaccine available for the prevention of TB. Four major drugs used in TB treatment: Isoniazid (INH), Rifampicin, Pyrazinamide & Ethambutol.
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Question 4 of 5
4. Question
1 pointsConsider the following statements with respect to the removal of a Vice-president in India:
- A formal impeachment is not required for his removal.
- The resolution for his removal should be passed by an effective majority in both Lok Sabha and Rajya Sabha.
- A resolution for his removal can be introduced only in the Rajya Sabha and not in the Lok Sabha.
- No ground has been mentioned in the Indian Constitution for his removal.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Correct
Answer: C
Explanation:
- Statement 1 is correct: The Vice-President holds office for a term of five years from the date on which he enters upon his office. However, he can resign from his office at any time by addressing the resignation letter to the President. He can also be removed from the office before completion of his term. A formal impeachment is not required for his removal.
- Statement 2 is incorrect: He can be removed by a resolution passed by a majority of all the then members of the Rajya Sabha and agreed to by the Lok Sabha. This means that this resolution should be passed in the Rajya Sabha by an effective majority and in the Lok Sabha by a simple majority. It must be noted here that the effective majority in India is only a type of special majority and not a separate one.
Statements 3 and 4 are correct: This resolution can be introduced only in the Rajya Sabha and not in the Lok Sabha. But, no such resolution can be moved unless at least 14 days’ advance notice has been given. Notably, no ground has been mentioned in the Constitution for his removal. The Vice-President can hold office beyond his term of five years until his successor assumes charge. He is also eligible for reelection to that office
Incorrect
Answer: C
Explanation:
- Statement 1 is correct: The Vice-President holds office for a term of five years from the date on which he enters upon his office. However, he can resign from his office at any time by addressing the resignation letter to the President. He can also be removed from the office before completion of his term. A formal impeachment is not required for his removal.
- Statement 2 is incorrect: He can be removed by a resolution passed by a majority of all the then members of the Rajya Sabha and agreed to by the Lok Sabha. This means that this resolution should be passed in the Rajya Sabha by an effective majority and in the Lok Sabha by a simple majority. It must be noted here that the effective majority in India is only a type of special majority and not a separate one.
Statements 3 and 4 are correct: This resolution can be introduced only in the Rajya Sabha and not in the Lok Sabha. But, no such resolution can be moved unless at least 14 days’ advance notice has been given. Notably, no ground has been mentioned in the Constitution for his removal. The Vice-President can hold office beyond his term of five years until his successor assumes charge. He is also eligible for reelection to that office
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Question 5 of 5
5. Question
1 pointsConsider the following pairs:
Dance form State
- Gotipua Nagaland
- Chhau Odisha
- Mohiniattam Andhrapradesh
How many of the pairs given above are correctly matched?
Correct
Answer: A
Explanation:
- Pair 1 is incorrectly matched: The Gotipua dance of Odisha is at risk of disappearing due to declining interest. Gotipua, refers to ‘one boy,’ has children trained in singing, dancing, yoga, and acrobatics within gurukuls or akhadas . They dress as girls and perform at temple festivals, social gatherings, and religious ceremonies. Gotipua is celebrated as the precursor to the classical Odissi dance form.
- Pair 2 is correctly matched: Chau or Chhau is a semi-classical Indian dance with martial, tribal, and folk origins from Orissa, Jharkhand, and West Bengal. There are three subtypes of this dance form: Purulia Chhau – West Bengal. Mayurbanj Chhau – Odisha. Performed majorly in the eastern regions of India, Chhau dance is a cultural amalgamation of various art forms such as martial arts, temple traditions, and folk and vernacular performing arts. The themes of this dance form are inspired by either scene from the epics – Ramayana and Mahabharata or from local and folk traditions of the region. The artists perform to the beats of traditional drums and folk music.
Pair 3 is incorrectly matched: Mohiniattam dance form of Kerala takes its name from the goddess Mohini. Mohiniattam is highly feminine with graceful movements. The artist while performing seems to be gliding on the stage with gentle foot movements. The dance form continues to be associated with the temples of Kerala.
Incorrect
Answer: A
Explanation:
- Pair 1 is incorrectly matched: The Gotipua dance of Odisha is at risk of disappearing due to declining interest. Gotipua, refers to ‘one boy,’ has children trained in singing, dancing, yoga, and acrobatics within gurukuls or akhadas . They dress as girls and perform at temple festivals, social gatherings, and religious ceremonies. Gotipua is celebrated as the precursor to the classical Odissi dance form.
- Pair 2 is correctly matched: Chau or Chhau is a semi-classical Indian dance with martial, tribal, and folk origins from Orissa, Jharkhand, and West Bengal. There are three subtypes of this dance form: Purulia Chhau – West Bengal. Mayurbanj Chhau – Odisha. Performed majorly in the eastern regions of India, Chhau dance is a cultural amalgamation of various art forms such as martial arts, temple traditions, and folk and vernacular performing arts. The themes of this dance form are inspired by either scene from the epics – Ramayana and Mahabharata or from local and folk traditions of the region. The artists perform to the beats of traditional drums and folk music.
Pair 3 is incorrectly matched: Mohiniattam dance form of Kerala takes its name from the goddess Mohini. Mohiniattam is highly feminine with graceful movements. The artist while performing seems to be gliding on the stage with gentle foot movements. The dance form continues to be associated with the temples of Kerala.
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