Daily Quiz 22 November 2024
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Question 1 of 5
1. Question
1 pointsConsider the following statements:
1. AUSTRAHIND is an annual military exercise between India and Australia launched in 2022 in Rajasthan.
2. The 2024 edition comprised of Indian personnel, primarily from the DOGRA Regiment and the Indian Air Force.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?Correct
Answer: C
Explanation:
• Statements 1 and 2 are correct: AUSTRAHIND, which launched in 2022 in Rajasthan, has grown into an annual event, alternating between India and Australia. This year’s edition focuses on enhancing joint capabilities in sub-conventional operations within semi-urban and semi-desert environments, in accordance with Chapter VII of the UN mandate. The Indian contingent comprises 140 personnel, primarily from the DOGRA Regiment and the Indian Air Force, while the Australian side is represented by 120 soldiers from the 13th Light Horse Regiment of the 10th Brigade. The third edition of the India-Australia joint military exercise, AUSTRAHIND, commenced on November 8 at the Foreign Training Node in Pune. Running until November 21, the exercise marks an ongoing collaborative effort to strengthen defense ties and interoperability between the two nations’ armed forces.Incorrect
Answer: C
Explanation:
• Statements 1 and 2 are correct: AUSTRAHIND, which launched in 2022 in Rajasthan, has grown into an annual event, alternating between India and Australia. This year’s edition focuses on enhancing joint capabilities in sub-conventional operations within semi-urban and semi-desert environments, in accordance with Chapter VII of the UN mandate. The Indian contingent comprises 140 personnel, primarily from the DOGRA Regiment and the Indian Air Force, while the Australian side is represented by 120 soldiers from the 13th Light Horse Regiment of the 10th Brigade. The third edition of the India-Australia joint military exercise, AUSTRAHIND, commenced on November 8 at the Foreign Training Node in Pune. Running until November 21, the exercise marks an ongoing collaborative effort to strengthen defense ties and interoperability between the two nations’ armed forces. -
Question 2 of 5
2. Question
1 pointsConsider the following statements:
- Wind energy is a renewable energy source that uses wind turbines to convert the wind’s potential energy into electricity.
- India is the 2nd largest wind energy producing nation in the world.
- According to the National Institute of Wind Energy, India has wind power potential for more than 1000 GW at 150 metres above ground level.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Correct
Answer: D
Explanation:
- Statements 1 and 2 are incorrect: Wind energy is a renewable energy source that uses wind turbines to convert the wind’s kinetic energy into electricity(kinetic energy is energy in motion, while potential energy is stored energy). China isthe world’s leader in wind energy, with an installed wind turbine capacity of 441,895 megawatts in 2023. United States is the second-largest generator of wind energy, with an installed wind turbine capacity of 148,020 megawatts in 2023. Germany aims to get 100% of its electricity from renewable sources by 2035, with an installed wind turbine capacity of 69,459 megawatts in 2023. India has the fourth largest installed wind power capacity in the world, with an installed wind turbine capacity of 44,736 megawatts in 2023.
Statement 3 is correct:According to the National Institute of Wind Energy (Chennai), India has wind power potential for 1,163.86 GW at 150 metres above ground level. As of Sep 2024, Renewable energy sources (including large hydropower) have a combined installed capacity of 201.45 GW in India.
Incorrect
Answer: D
Explanation:
- Statements 1 and 2 are incorrect: Wind energy is a renewable energy source that uses wind turbines to convert the wind’s kinetic energy into electricity(kinetic energy is energy in motion, while potential energy is stored energy). China isthe world’s leader in wind energy, with an installed wind turbine capacity of 441,895 megawatts in 2023. United States is the second-largest generator of wind energy, with an installed wind turbine capacity of 148,020 megawatts in 2023. Germany aims to get 100% of its electricity from renewable sources by 2035, with an installed wind turbine capacity of 69,459 megawatts in 2023. India has the fourth largest installed wind power capacity in the world, with an installed wind turbine capacity of 44,736 megawatts in 2023.
Statement 3 is correct:According to the National Institute of Wind Energy (Chennai), India has wind power potential for 1,163.86 GW at 150 metres above ground level. As of Sep 2024, Renewable energy sources (including large hydropower) have a combined installed capacity of 201.45 GW in India.
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Question 3 of 5
3. Question
1 pointsFrance is considering India’s Pinaka multi-barrel rocket launcher system as part of its military upgrade. With respect to the Pinaka multi-barrel rocket launcher system, consider the following statements:
- Each rocket can carry a payload of around 100 kg, with various warhead options including high explosives and anti-tank mines.
- Presently The Indian Army has only one Pinaka regiment in service.
- United States is the first export customer for the indigenously developed Pinaka.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Correct
Answer: A
Explanation:
- Statement 1 is correct:Pinaka Multi-barrel Rocket Launch (MBRL) System is developed by Armament Research and Development Establishment (ARDE), a DRDO laboratory. (First used during Kargil War). It can fire a salvo of 12 rockets within 44 seconds. Each rocket can carry a payload of around 100 kg, with various warhead options including high explosives and anti-tank mines.
Statements 2 and 3 areincorrect :Presently The Indian Army has four Pinaka regiments in service and six more are on order.The system is already in service with the Indian Army and deployed both at the LoC with Pakistan and LAC with China. Armenia became the first export customer for the indigenously developed Pinaka.The Pinaka system, considered on par with America’s HIMARS system, has been India’s first major defence export as conflict-hit Armenia had placed the first order. Now France has also shown interest in the advanced rocket system to boost its army’s artillery division.
Incorrect
Answer: A
Explanation:
- Statement 1 is correct:Pinaka Multi-barrel Rocket Launch (MBRL) System is developed by Armament Research and Development Establishment (ARDE), a DRDO laboratory. (First used during Kargil War). It can fire a salvo of 12 rockets within 44 seconds. Each rocket can carry a payload of around 100 kg, with various warhead options including high explosives and anti-tank mines.
Statements 2 and 3 areincorrect :Presently The Indian Army has four Pinaka regiments in service and six more are on order.The system is already in service with the Indian Army and deployed both at the LoC with Pakistan and LAC with China. Armenia became the first export customer for the indigenously developed Pinaka.The Pinaka system, considered on par with America’s HIMARS system, has been India’s first major defence export as conflict-hit Armenia had placed the first order. Now France has also shown interest in the advanced rocket system to boost its army’s artillery division.
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Question 4 of 5
4. Question
1 pointsOut of Pocket Expenditure (OOPE) refers to the money people pay directly from their own pockets for medical services. With respect to health expenditure and its trends in India, consider the following statements:
- Between 2014-2022, the government’s share of health expenditure grew to 2.5% of the GDP.
- Between 2014-2022, the share of Out of Pocket Expenditure (OOPE) in the Total Health Expenditure declined from 62.6% to 39.4%.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Correct
Answer: B
Explanation: Recently released National Health Accounts (NHA) data for 2021-22 showed a reduction in Out-of-Pocket Expenditure (OOPE).
- Statement 1 isincorrect:Between 2014-15 and 2021-22, the government’s share of health expenditure grew from 1.3% to 1.84% of GDP. The target is to reach 2.5% of GDP by 2025.Social Security Expenditure (SSE) on healthcare, including government-funded health insurance and social health programs, has increased from 5.7% of Total Health Expenditure (THE) in 2014-15 to 8.7% in 2021-22. Programs like Ayushman Bharat, along with various state-level health insurance schemes, have provided insurance coverage to economically vulnerable populations.
Statement 2 is correct: OOPE refers to the money people pay directly from their own pockets for medical services, such as doctor visits, medicines, and hospital stays. It excludes those covered by public or private insurance or social protection schemes. Between 2014-2022, the share of Out of Pocket Expenditure (OOPE) in the Total Health Expenditure declined from 62.6% to 39.4%.
Incorrect
Answer: B
Explanation: Recently released National Health Accounts (NHA) data for 2021-22 showed a reduction in Out-of-Pocket Expenditure (OOPE).
- Statement 1 isincorrect:Between 2014-15 and 2021-22, the government’s share of health expenditure grew from 1.3% to 1.84% of GDP. The target is to reach 2.5% of GDP by 2025.Social Security Expenditure (SSE) on healthcare, including government-funded health insurance and social health programs, has increased from 5.7% of Total Health Expenditure (THE) in 2014-15 to 8.7% in 2021-22. Programs like Ayushman Bharat, along with various state-level health insurance schemes, have provided insurance coverage to economically vulnerable populations.
Statement 2 is correct: OOPE refers to the money people pay directly from their own pockets for medical services, such as doctor visits, medicines, and hospital stays. It excludes those covered by public or private insurance or social protection schemes. Between 2014-2022, the share of Out of Pocket Expenditure (OOPE) in the Total Health Expenditure declined from 62.6% to 39.4%.
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Question 5 of 5
5. Question
1 pointsWith respect to the borrowing powers of the centre and the state, consider the following statements:
- The Constitution grants the central government the authority to borrow on the Consolidated Fund of India.
- The Constitution allows state governments to borrow on the Consolidated Fund of India, subject to any borrowing limits set by the State legislature.
- The Fiscal Responsibility and Budget Management Act(FRBM) (2003) set fiscal targets for the central government and required States to establish their own deficit control laws.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Correct
Answer: C
Explanation:
- Statement 1 iscorrect while Statement 2 is incorrect: Article 292 of the Constitution grants the central government the authority to borrow on the Consolidated Fund of India. Article 293 allows State governments to borrow within India on their Consolidated Fund of the state, subject to any borrowing limits set by the State legislature. Article 293(3) imposes conditions on States with outstanding loans or guarantees from the central government, requiring central approval for new loans. Article 293(4) gives the central government broad discretion in imposing terms on these loans.
Statement 3 is correct: The FRBM Act (2003) set fiscal targets for the central government and required States to establish their own deficit control laws. A 2018 amendment further limited the fiscal deficit to 3% of GDP, aiming to reduce it to below 4.5% by 2025-26. The restrictions on State borrowing, driven by the central government’s fiscal goals, have raised concerns about States’ fiscal autonomy.
Incorrect
Answer: C
Explanation:
- Statement 1 iscorrect while Statement 2 is incorrect: Article 292 of the Constitution grants the central government the authority to borrow on the Consolidated Fund of India. Article 293 allows State governments to borrow within India on their Consolidated Fund of the state, subject to any borrowing limits set by the State legislature. Article 293(3) imposes conditions on States with outstanding loans or guarantees from the central government, requiring central approval for new loans. Article 293(4) gives the central government broad discretion in imposing terms on these loans.
Statement 3 is correct: The FRBM Act (2003) set fiscal targets for the central government and required States to establish their own deficit control laws. A 2018 amendment further limited the fiscal deficit to 3% of GDP, aiming to reduce it to below 4.5% by 2025-26. The restrictions on State borrowing, driven by the central government’s fiscal goals, have raised concerns about States’ fiscal autonomy.
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