Daily Quiz 17 October 2024
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Question 1 of 5
1. Question
1 pointsConsider the following statements:
1. Trachoma is an infectious eye disease caused by the bacterium Chlamydia.
2. It is a neglected tropical disease and is the leading infectious cause of blindness worldwide.
3. India has successfully eliminated trachoma through community vaccination drives.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?Correct
Answer: A
Explanation:
● Statements 1 and 2 are correct: Trachoma is an infectious eye disease caused by the bacterium Chlamydia trachomatis. It is the leading infectious cause of blindness worldwide and primarily affects people in impoverished regions with limited access to clean water and sanitation. WHO has termed Trachoma as a Neglected tropical disease (NTD). It is transmitted through direct contact with eye or nose secretions from infected individuals. It can also spread via contaminated objects (like towels) and through flies that carry the bacteria.
● Statement 3 is incorrect: The World Health Organization (WHO) has officially recognized that India has successfully eliminated trachoma. No trachoma vaccine is available, but prevention is possible. The World Health Organization (WHO) recommends the SAFE strategy, which includes:
Surgery: To correct trichiasis (inward-turning eyelashes).
Antibiotics: Mass treatment with azithromycin to clear infections.
Facial Cleanliness: Promoting hygiene to reduce transmission.
Environmental Improvements: Enhancing access to clean water and sanitation facilities.Incorrect
Answer: A
Explanation:
● Statements 1 and 2 are correct: Trachoma is an infectious eye disease caused by the bacterium Chlamydia trachomatis. It is the leading infectious cause of blindness worldwide and primarily affects people in impoverished regions with limited access to clean water and sanitation. WHO has termed Trachoma as a Neglected tropical disease (NTD). It is transmitted through direct contact with eye or nose secretions from infected individuals. It can also spread via contaminated objects (like towels) and through flies that carry the bacteria.
● Statement 3 is incorrect: The World Health Organization (WHO) has officially recognized that India has successfully eliminated trachoma. No trachoma vaccine is available, but prevention is possible. The World Health Organization (WHO) recommends the SAFE strategy, which includes:
Surgery: To correct trichiasis (inward-turning eyelashes).
Antibiotics: Mass treatment with azithromycin to clear infections.
Facial Cleanliness: Promoting hygiene to reduce transmission.
Environmental Improvements: Enhancing access to clean water and sanitation facilities. -
Question 2 of 5
2. Question
1 pointsWhich of the following statement about Pluto is not correct?
Correct
Answer: C
Explanation:
- Statements (a), (b) and (d) are correct: Pluto is a dwarf planet located in the Kuiper Belt. It is a region of the solar system beyond Neptune populated with many small icy bodies, including dwarf planets like Eris and Haumea. It was discovered in 1930 and was initially classified as the 9th planet in our solar system. However, it was reclassified as a dwarf planet by the International Astronomical Union (IAU) in 2006 due to its inability to clear its orbit of other debris. A day on Pluto is 6.4 Earth days or 153.3 hours long. A year on Pluto is 248 Earth years. This is because it rotates much more slowly than Earth.
- Statement (c) is incorrect: Pluto has 5 known moons:
- Charon: Discovered in 1978. The largest moon, about half the size of Pluto. It is unique because its size relative to Pluto makes it the largest moon in relation to its parent planet in the solar system. Charon is tidally locked to Pluto, meaning the same side always faces Pluto. Scientists have detected carbon dioxide on Charon using the James Webb Space Telescope.
- Nix: It was discovered in 2005. It is smaller than Charon and has a highly reflective surface.
- Hydra: Also discovered in 2005. It is slightly larger than Nix and shares similar characteristics.
- Kerberos: It was discovered in 2011. Smaller than Nix and Hydra, Kerberos has a complex surface that may include water ice.
Styx: The smallest moon, discovered in 2012.
Incorrect
Answer: C
Explanation:
- Statements (a), (b) and (d) are correct: Pluto is a dwarf planet located in the Kuiper Belt. It is a region of the solar system beyond Neptune populated with many small icy bodies, including dwarf planets like Eris and Haumea. It was discovered in 1930 and was initially classified as the 9th planet in our solar system. However, it was reclassified as a dwarf planet by the International Astronomical Union (IAU) in 2006 due to its inability to clear its orbit of other debris. A day on Pluto is 6.4 Earth days or 153.3 hours long. A year on Pluto is 248 Earth years. This is because it rotates much more slowly than Earth.
- Statement (c) is incorrect: Pluto has 5 known moons:
- Charon: Discovered in 1978. The largest moon, about half the size of Pluto. It is unique because its size relative to Pluto makes it the largest moon in relation to its parent planet in the solar system. Charon is tidally locked to Pluto, meaning the same side always faces Pluto. Scientists have detected carbon dioxide on Charon using the James Webb Space Telescope.
- Nix: It was discovered in 2005. It is smaller than Charon and has a highly reflective surface.
- Hydra: Also discovered in 2005. It is slightly larger than Nix and shares similar characteristics.
- Kerberos: It was discovered in 2011. Smaller than Nix and Hydra, Kerberos has a complex surface that may include water ice.
Styx: The smallest moon, discovered in 2012.
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Question 3 of 5
3. Question
1 pointsConsider the following statements:
Statement-I:
Indian Space Research Organisation (ISRO) recently demonstrated the re-entry of upper stage of the PSLV-C37 to the Earth’s atmosphere.
Statement-II
This was done to demonstrate India’s capability to carry manned spaced missions and to bring back astronauts to the Earth.
Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements?
Correct
Answer: C
Explanation:
- Statement I is correct: PSLV C-37 was launched by the Indian Space Research Organisation (ISRO) into space in 2017. It broke the previous record of 37 satellites launched by a Russian Dnepr rocket in 2014. The upper stage of the PSLV-C37 re-entered Earth’s atmosphere on October 6, 2024, after nearly eight years in space. The primary payload was Cartosat-2D, an Earth observation satellite. The secondary payloads included 103 nanosatellites, including two from India and 101 from other countries.
Statement II is incorrect: This event demonstrated India’s commitment to responsible space practices and debris mitigation. It was regularly tracked by ISRO System for Safe and Sustainable Space Operations Management (IS4OM) & the U.S. Space Command (USSPACECOM). Atmospheric re-entry of the rocket body is fully compliant with the international debris mitigation guidelines of Inter-Agency Space Debris Coordination Committee (IADC). IS4OM is an initiative by ISRO focused on ensuring safe and sustainable operations in space.
Incorrect
Answer: C
Explanation:
- Statement I is correct: PSLV C-37 was launched by the Indian Space Research Organisation (ISRO) into space in 2017. It broke the previous record of 37 satellites launched by a Russian Dnepr rocket in 2014. The upper stage of the PSLV-C37 re-entered Earth’s atmosphere on October 6, 2024, after nearly eight years in space. The primary payload was Cartosat-2D, an Earth observation satellite. The secondary payloads included 103 nanosatellites, including two from India and 101 from other countries.
Statement II is incorrect: This event demonstrated India’s commitment to responsible space practices and debris mitigation. It was regularly tracked by ISRO System for Safe and Sustainable Space Operations Management (IS4OM) & the U.S. Space Command (USSPACECOM). Atmospheric re-entry of the rocket body is fully compliant with the international debris mitigation guidelines of Inter-Agency Space Debris Coordination Committee (IADC). IS4OM is an initiative by ISRO focused on ensuring safe and sustainable operations in space.
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Question 4 of 5
4. Question
1 pointsConsider the following statements:
Statement-I:
The Major Atmospheric Cherenkov Experiment (MACE) is the highest and largest imaging Cherenkov telescope in the world located in Hanle, Ladakh.
Statement-II
Hanle is a remote village situated in the Changthang Plateau and the river basin is home to migratory birds.
Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements?
Correct
Answer: B
Explanation:
- Statement I is correct: The Major Atmospheric Cherenkov Experiment (MACE) Observatory was officially inaugurated at Hanle, Ladakh. It is the highest and largest imaging Cherenkov telescope in the world located at an altitude of almost 4,300 metres. It is built indigenously by the Bhabha Atomic Research Centre (BARC) & Electronics Corporation of India Ltd (ECIL).
- Statement II is correct: Hanle is located in the remote high-altitude Changthang Plateauin the Ladakh region. The village is located 270 km from Leh. Hanle is the only place in Ladakh where you will get to see the Tibetan gazelle. Also, Hanle river basin is home to a number of migratory birds. Migratory birds such as the bar-headed goose and the black-necked crane find Hanle to be a perfect breeding ground.
Statement II is not the correct explanation of Statement I: Hanle is heaven for gamma-ray astronomers with its dark skies, low humidity and almost no air pollution. The longitudinal advantage of its location enables MACE to observe sources invisible to other parts of the world. Hanley Dark Sky Reserve is India’s first dark sky reserve. Hence, while both statements are correct, statement II doesnot explain statement I. The reason for choosing hanle is its dark skies and no pollution.
Incorrect
Answer: B
Explanation:
- Statement I is correct: The Major Atmospheric Cherenkov Experiment (MACE) Observatory was officially inaugurated at Hanle, Ladakh. It is the highest and largest imaging Cherenkov telescope in the world located at an altitude of almost 4,300 metres. It is built indigenously by the Bhabha Atomic Research Centre (BARC) & Electronics Corporation of India Ltd (ECIL).
- Statement II is correct: Hanle is located in the remote high-altitude Changthang Plateauin the Ladakh region. The village is located 270 km from Leh. Hanle is the only place in Ladakh where you will get to see the Tibetan gazelle. Also, Hanle river basin is home to a number of migratory birds. Migratory birds such as the bar-headed goose and the black-necked crane find Hanle to be a perfect breeding ground.
Statement II is not the correct explanation of Statement I: Hanle is heaven for gamma-ray astronomers with its dark skies, low humidity and almost no air pollution. The longitudinal advantage of its location enables MACE to observe sources invisible to other parts of the world. Hanley Dark Sky Reserve is India’s first dark sky reserve. Hence, while both statements are correct, statement II doesnot explain statement I. The reason for choosing hanle is its dark skies and no pollution.
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Question 5 of 5
5. Question
1 pointsConsider the following statements:
- While Union territories of Puducherry and J&K can nominate members of Legislative assemblies(MLA), no state assembly in India can do so.
- The Jammu and Kashmir Reorganisation Act, 2019 allows the Lieutenant Governor to nominate two members to the Legislative Assembly to represent displaced persons from Pakistan-occupied Kashmir.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Correct
Answer: A
Explanation:
- Statement 1 is correct: No state assembly in India allows for MLA nominations; this provision applies only to the Union Territories of Puducherry and J&K. The J&K UT Assembly is modelled after the Puducherry Assembly, where nominated members enjoy the same rights as elected MLAs, including voting rights.
Statement 2 is incorrect: The Jammu and Kashmir Reorganisation Act, 2019 specified that the Lieutenant Governor may nominate two members to the Legislative Assembly to give representation to women if in his opinion, they are not adequately represented. In 2023, the Act was amended to increase the number of nominated members to 5. The three additional members were: 2 members from the Kashmiri migrant community (one of whom must be a woman) and 1 member representing displaced persons from Pakistan-occupied Kashmir (POK).
Incorrect
Answer: A
Explanation:
- Statement 1 is correct: No state assembly in India allows for MLA nominations; this provision applies only to the Union Territories of Puducherry and J&K. The J&K UT Assembly is modelled after the Puducherry Assembly, where nominated members enjoy the same rights as elected MLAs, including voting rights.
Statement 2 is incorrect: The Jammu and Kashmir Reorganisation Act, 2019 specified that the Lieutenant Governor may nominate two members to the Legislative Assembly to give representation to women if in his opinion, they are not adequately represented. In 2023, the Act was amended to increase the number of nominated members to 5. The three additional members were: 2 members from the Kashmiri migrant community (one of whom must be a woman) and 1 member representing displaced persons from Pakistan-occupied Kashmir (POK).
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