Daily Quiz 12 September 2023

Explanation:

• Option (1) is the correct answer: The International Treaty on Plant Genetic Resources for Food and Agriculture (ITPGRFA) was adopted by the Food and Agriculture Organization (FAO) of the United Nations November 3, 2001. It is a legally binding international agreement. The Treaty is open for accession by all Members of FAO and any States that are not Members of FAO but are Members of the United Nations. It aims establishing a global system to provide farmers, plant breeders and scientists with access to plant genetic materials. It puts 64 of our most important crops – crops that together account for 80% of the food we derive from plants – into an easily accessible global pool of genetic resources that is freely available to potential users in the Treaty’s ratifying nations for some uses. However, the treaty prevents the recipients of genetic resources from claiming intellectual property rights over those resources.

Explanation:

The Indian Cellular and Electronics Association (ICEA) recently released a report titled ‘Pathways to Circular Economy in Indian Electronics Sector.’

• Statement 1 is correct: India produces about 4 mMT (million Metric Tonnes) of e-waste. This is expected to increase 40-fold by 2050. However electronic waste management in India is predominantly informal, with roughly 90% of collection and 70% of recycling handled by the informal sector. Only 1.5% of electronic waste generated in India is recycled through institutional processes.
• Statement 2 is correct: Toxic metals such as cadmium and lead can be found in electronic waste, as can lead oxide and cadmium in monitor cathode ray tubes (CRTs), mercury in switches and flat-screen monitors, cadmium in computer batteries, polychlorinated biphenyls in older capacitors and transformers, and brominated flame retardants in phone shells, computer housings and TV housings.
• Statement 3 is incorrect: According to Global E-waste Monitor 2020, India is the third-largest e-waste generator in the world after China and the United States America. In India, Computer devices accounts for nearly 70% of annual e-waste production, followed by telecom sector, medical equipment and electric equipment.

Explanation:

• Statement 1 and 2 are incorrect: The Constitution does not mention the term “special session.” However, Article 352 (Proclamation of Emergency) of the Constitution does refer to a “special sitting of the House”. Parliament added the part relating to the “special sitting” through the Constitution 44th Amendment Act, 1978. Its purpose was to add safeguards to the power of proclaiming Emergency in the country. It specifies that if a Proclamation of Emergency is issued and Parliament is not in session, then one-tenth of Lok Sabha MPs can ask the President to convene a special meeting to disapprove the Emergency.

In the Indian Parliament, a Session is the period between the first sitting of a House and its prorogation or dissolution, while a Sitting is the period during which Parliament sits continuously without adjourning.

• Statement 3 is correct: India does not have a fixed parliamentary calendar. By convention, Parliament meets for three sessions in a year. The power to convene a session of Parliament rests with the President. The decision is taken by the Cabinet Committee on Parliamentary Affairs, and formalised by the President, in whose name MPs are summoned to meet for a session.

Explanation:

A Constitution bench has declared that its 2014 judgment in the Subramanian Swamy vs Union of India case, in which Section 6A of the DSPE Act was held as invalid, will have retrospective effect.

• Statement 1 is correct: The Delhi Special Police Establishment Act was brought into force in India in 1946. The Central Bureau of Investigation power to investigate cases is derived from this Act.
• Statement 2 is incorrect: Section 6A of the DSPE Act was added in September 2003 through Section 26 of the Central Vigilance Commission Act (CVCA). It required the Central Bureau of Investigation to obtain prior sanction from the central government to investigate corruption cases against an officer of the rank of joint secretary and above. However, an exception provided in Section 6A (2) states that no approval is necessary for cases involving arrest of a person on the spot on the charge of accepting or attempting to accept a bribe. In 2014, a five-judge constitution bench struck down Section 6A of the DSPE Act in Subramanian Swamy v. Union of India case. Supreme Court stated that “status or position” cannot shield an officer of the level of joint secretary and above from unconstrained probe by the CBI in cases of corruption.

• Statement 1 is incorrect: Telecom Regulatory Authority of India (TRAI) is a is a statutory body established in 1997 through the Telecom Regulatory Authority of India Act, 1997, to regulate telecom services, including fixation/revision of tariffs for telecom services. The main objective of TRAI is to provide a fair and transparent policy environment which promotes a level playing field and facilitates fair competition.
• Statement 2 is correct: The TRAI consists of a chairperson, two whole-time membersand two part-time members, all of which are appointed by the Government of India.
• Statement 3 is incorrect: The Chairperson has the power of organising the meetingsat times. He/She presides over the meetings. In the absence of the chairperson, the vice-chairperson presides over the meetings. In the absence of a vice-chairperson, any member can be chosen from the authority to preside over the meeting. The decisions in the meetings are taken by the majority vote of the members present.