Daily Quiz 12 July 2024
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Question 1 of 5
1. Question
1 pointsConsider the following statements:
Statement-I:
While early warnings and quick response have significantly reduced human casualties in disasters, economic and other losses from extreme weather events and disasters have been rising.
Statement-II
The damage caused to critical infrastructure like transportation and power supply by disasters is often not counted in government figures, particularly when these services are privately owned.
Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements?
Correct
Answer: B
Explanation:
- Statement I is correct: Critical infrastructure refers to the systems, facilities and assets that are vital for the functioning of society and the economy. These infrastructures are considered essential because their disruption would impact public safety, security and health or economic stability. While early warnings and quick response have significantly reduced human casualties in disasters, economic and other losses from extreme weather events and disasters have been rising.Government data show that in the five years between 2018 and 2023, states together spent more than Rs 1.5 lakh crore on dealing with the aftermath of disasters and natural calamities.
- Statement II is correct:The damage caused to critical infrastructure like transportation, telecommunications, and power supply by disasters and extreme weather events is often not counted in government figures, particularly when these services are privately owned. But this damage causes massive disruptions and makes the disaster worse.
- Statement II is not the correct explanation for Statement I: While early warnings and quick responsehave significantly reduced human casualties in disasters, economic and other losses from extreme weather events and disasters have been rising. This is mainly due to the increase in frequency and intensity of such events. Statement II is an independent effect of less focus on the economic loss during a disaster. Hence, statement II doesnot explain statement I
Incorrect
Answer: B
Explanation:
- Statement I is correct: Critical infrastructure refers to the systems, facilities and assets that are vital for the functioning of society and the economy. These infrastructures are considered essential because their disruption would impact public safety, security and health or economic stability. While early warnings and quick response have significantly reduced human casualties in disasters, economic and other losses from extreme weather events and disasters have been rising.Government data show that in the five years between 2018 and 2023, states together spent more than Rs 1.5 lakh crore on dealing with the aftermath of disasters and natural calamities.
- Statement II is correct:The damage caused to critical infrastructure like transportation, telecommunications, and power supply by disasters and extreme weather events is often not counted in government figures, particularly when these services are privately owned. But this damage causes massive disruptions and makes the disaster worse.
- Statement II is not the correct explanation for Statement I: While early warnings and quick responsehave significantly reduced human casualties in disasters, economic and other losses from extreme weather events and disasters have been rising. This is mainly due to the increase in frequency and intensity of such events. Statement II is an independent effect of less focus on the economic loss during a disaster. Hence, statement II doesnot explain statement I
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Question 2 of 5
2. Question
1 pointsConsider the following statements with respect to the Deputy Speaker of Loksabha:
- The constitution of India provides for the specific time frame for the election of Deputy Speaker of Loksabha
- The constitution of India provides for resignation or removal of the Deputy Speaker of the House of the People.
- When he is appointed as a member of a Parliamentary Committee, he automatically becomes its Chairman.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Correct
Answer: B
Explanation:
- Statement 1 is incorrect:Article 93 of the constitution says that the House of the People shall, as soon as may be, choose two members to be the Speaker and Deputy Speaker and, so often as the office of Speaker or Deputy Speaker becomes vacant, the House shall choose another member. Both Articles 93 and 178 use the word “shall”, indicating that the election of Speaker and Deputy Speaker is mandatory under the Constitution. There is no specific time frame mentioned in the Constitution for the election of Speaker and Deputy Speaker. All that the Constitution says is the election must be held as soon as possible. Once elected, the Deputy Speaker usually continues in office for the entire duration of the House.
- Statement 2 is correct: Article 94 of the constitution provides for vacation/resignation/removal of the Speaker or Deputy Speaker of the House of the People. Under it, the Speaker or Deputy Speaker shall vacate his office if he ceases to be a member of the House. They may also resign to each other or may be removed from office by a resolution of the House of the People passed by a majority of all the then members of the House.
- Statement 3 is correct: The Deputy Speaker is independent of the Speaker, not subordinate to him, as both are elected from among the members of the House. It has been held that no appeal lies to the Speaker against a ruling given by the Deputy Speaker or any person presiding over the House in the absence of the Speaker. One of his special privileges as Deputy Speaker is that when he is appointed as a member of a Parliamentary Committee, he automatically becomes its Chairman.
Incorrect
Answer: B
Explanation:
- Statement 1 is incorrect:Article 93 of the constitution says that the House of the People shall, as soon as may be, choose two members to be the Speaker and Deputy Speaker and, so often as the office of Speaker or Deputy Speaker becomes vacant, the House shall choose another member. Both Articles 93 and 178 use the word “shall”, indicating that the election of Speaker and Deputy Speaker is mandatory under the Constitution. There is no specific time frame mentioned in the Constitution for the election of Speaker and Deputy Speaker. All that the Constitution says is the election must be held as soon as possible. Once elected, the Deputy Speaker usually continues in office for the entire duration of the House.
- Statement 2 is correct: Article 94 of the constitution provides for vacation/resignation/removal of the Speaker or Deputy Speaker of the House of the People. Under it, the Speaker or Deputy Speaker shall vacate his office if he ceases to be a member of the House. They may also resign to each other or may be removed from office by a resolution of the House of the People passed by a majority of all the then members of the House.
- Statement 3 is correct: The Deputy Speaker is independent of the Speaker, not subordinate to him, as both are elected from among the members of the House. It has been held that no appeal lies to the Speaker against a ruling given by the Deputy Speaker or any person presiding over the House in the absence of the Speaker. One of his special privileges as Deputy Speaker is that when he is appointed as a member of a Parliamentary Committee, he automatically becomes its Chairman.
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Question 3 of 5
3. Question
1 pointsConsider the following statements:
Statement-I:
In 2024, the Gross Non Performing Asset stock decreased across all bank groups, along with an improved provisioning coverage ratio.
Statement-II
The sustained reduction in the GNPA ratio since March 2020 has been due to increased write-offs as one of the primary reasons.
Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements?
Correct
Answer: A
Explanation: A non performing asset (NPA) is a loan or advance for which the principal or interest payment remained overdue for a period of 90 days.
- Statement I is correct:The gross non-performing assets (GNPA) ratio of scheduled commercial banks, moderated to a 12-year low of 2.8 per cent in March 2024. While the GNPA stock decreased across all bank groups, active and deep provisioning by PSBs and FBs resulted in an improved provisioning coverage ratio (PCR) in March 2024.
- Statement II is correct:Overall, the sustained reduction in the GNPA ratio since March 2020 has been primarily due to a persistent fall in new NPA accretions and increased write-offs. The half-yearly slippage ratio (new NPA accretions as a share of standard advances) decreased across bank groups. Though the amount of write-offs declined during the year, the write-off ratio remained almost at the same level as a year ago, due to reduction in GNPA stock.
- Hence, Statement II is the correct explanation for Statement I.
Incorrect
Answer: A
Explanation: A non performing asset (NPA) is a loan or advance for which the principal or interest payment remained overdue for a period of 90 days.
- Statement I is correct:The gross non-performing assets (GNPA) ratio of scheduled commercial banks, moderated to a 12-year low of 2.8 per cent in March 2024. While the GNPA stock decreased across all bank groups, active and deep provisioning by PSBs and FBs resulted in an improved provisioning coverage ratio (PCR) in March 2024.
- Statement II is correct:Overall, the sustained reduction in the GNPA ratio since March 2020 has been primarily due to a persistent fall in new NPA accretions and increased write-offs. The half-yearly slippage ratio (new NPA accretions as a share of standard advances) decreased across bank groups. Though the amount of write-offs declined during the year, the write-off ratio remained almost at the same level as a year ago, due to reduction in GNPA stock.
- Hence, Statement II is the correct explanation for Statement I.
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Question 4 of 5
4. Question
1 pointsWhich of the following term most appropriately refers to an integrative approach in biological research that combines data from various “omes” fields to provide a comprehensive understanding of biological systems and processes and is presently revolutionising the detection and treatment of diseases like tuberculosis (TB), cancers, and antimicrobial resistance.
Correct
Answer: B
Explanation:
- Option (b) is correct: Multiomics, multi-omics, integrative omics, “panomics”or “pan-omics” is a biological analysis approach that refers to an integrative approach in biological research that combines data from multiple “omics” fields to provide a comprehensive understanding of biological systems and processes. Each “omics” field studies a different aspect of the molecules that make up an organism. By integrating these diverse datasets, researchers can gain a more holistic view of how genes, proteins, and other molecules interact and contribute to health and disease. India’s use of multi-omics is revolutionising the detection and treatment of diseases like tuberculosis (TB), cancers, and antimicrobial resistance. Genomics, Trascriptomics, epigenomics, metabolomics, proteomics etc are the components of multi-omics or pan-omics.
Incorrect
Answer: B
Explanation:
- Option (b) is correct: Multiomics, multi-omics, integrative omics, “panomics”or “pan-omics” is a biological analysis approach that refers to an integrative approach in biological research that combines data from multiple “omics” fields to provide a comprehensive understanding of biological systems and processes. Each “omics” field studies a different aspect of the molecules that make up an organism. By integrating these diverse datasets, researchers can gain a more holistic view of how genes, proteins, and other molecules interact and contribute to health and disease. India’s use of multi-omics is revolutionising the detection and treatment of diseases like tuberculosis (TB), cancers, and antimicrobial resistance. Genomics, Trascriptomics, epigenomics, metabolomics, proteomics etc are the components of multi-omics or pan-omics.
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Question 5 of 5
5. Question
1 pointsConsider the following statements with respect to the Bannerghatta National Park (BNItP):
- It is located in the hills of Shevaroy range.
- Suvarnamukhi stream runs through the park.
- It hosts India’s largest leopard safari.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Correct
Answer: B
Explanation:
- Statement 1 is incorrect:Bannerghatta National Park is a national park in India, located near Bangalore, Karnataka. It was founded in 1970 and declared as a national park in 1974. In 2002, a small portion of the park became a zoological garden, the Bannerghatta Biological Park.It is located near Bangalore, Karnataka, in the hills of the Anekal range. Shevaroy Hills, is an outlying range of the Eastern Ghats, in north-central Tamil Nadu state, southern India.
- Statement 2 is correct: Suvarnamukhi stream, the main source of water for the animals of the park, runs through the center of the park and originates at Suvarnamukhi hills, which extend to over a km in length. Vegetation Types: Dry Deciduous Scrub Forests, Southern Tropical Dry Deciduous Forests, Southern Tropical Moist Mixed Forests. Endangered Asian Elephant, Indian Gaur, Tiger, Sambar Deer, Spotted Deer, Leopard, Wild Dog, Wild Pig, Sloth Bear, Common Mongoose, Pangolin, Slender Loris, Black-naped Hare are spotted here.
- Statement 3 is correct: The country’s largest leopard safari (South India’s First) was inaugurated by the Forest, Ecology and Environment Minister at the Bannerghatta Biological Park (BBP), Karnataka. The safari spans 20 hectares with eight leopards released in a natural forest setting. It is aimed at highlighting leopards and addressing human-animal conflict, the park rescues leopard cubs for educational purposes.
Incorrect
Answer: B
Explanation:
- Statement 1 is incorrect:Bannerghatta National Park is a national park in India, located near Bangalore, Karnataka. It was founded in 1970 and declared as a national park in 1974. In 2002, a small portion of the park became a zoological garden, the Bannerghatta Biological Park.It is located near Bangalore, Karnataka, in the hills of the Anekal range. Shevaroy Hills, is an outlying range of the Eastern Ghats, in north-central Tamil Nadu state, southern India.
- Statement 2 is correct: Suvarnamukhi stream, the main source of water for the animals of the park, runs through the center of the park and originates at Suvarnamukhi hills, which extend to over a km in length. Vegetation Types: Dry Deciduous Scrub Forests, Southern Tropical Dry Deciduous Forests, Southern Tropical Moist Mixed Forests. Endangered Asian Elephant, Indian Gaur, Tiger, Sambar Deer, Spotted Deer, Leopard, Wild Dog, Wild Pig, Sloth Bear, Common Mongoose, Pangolin, Slender Loris, Black-naped Hare are spotted here.
- Statement 3 is correct: The country’s largest leopard safari (South India’s First) was inaugurated by the Forest, Ecology and Environment Minister at the Bannerghatta Biological Park (BBP), Karnataka. The safari spans 20 hectares with eight leopards released in a natural forest setting. It is aimed at highlighting leopards and addressing human-animal conflict, the park rescues leopard cubs for educational purposes.
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