Daily Quiz 11 September 2024
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Question 1 of 5
1. Question
1 pointsUnion cabinet recently launched Digital Agriculture Mission for the creation of Digital Public Infrastructure (DPI) in the farm sector. With respect to its components, consider the following statements:
- Under the Krishi decision support system, 2 databases of Farmers’ Registry and Geo-referenced Village Maps are to be created and maintained by state/ UT governments.
- Under the Agristack component, a crop sown registry is to be created and maintained by the central government.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Correct
Answer: D
Explanation:
● Statements 1 and 2 are incorrect: Three major components of DPI are envisaged under the Digital Agriculture Mission: AgriStack, Krishi Decision Support System (DSS), and Soil Profile Maps. The farmer-centric DPI AgriStack consists of three foundational agri-sector registries or databases: Farmers’ Registry, Geo-referenced Village Maps, and Crop Sown Registry, all of which will be created and maintained by state/ UT governments. Farmers will be given a digital identity (‘Farmer ID’) similar to Aadhaar, which will be linked dynamically to records of land, ownership of livestock, crops sown, demographic details, family details, schemes and benefits availed, etc. The Crop Sown Registry will provide details of crops planted by farmers. The maps will link geographic information on land records with their physical locations. The Krishi Decision Support System, which was unveiled recently, will create a comprehensive geospatial system to unify remote sensing-based information on crops, soil, weather, and water resources, etc. This information will support crop map generation for identifying crop sown patterns, droughts/ flood monitoring, and technology-/ model-based yield assessment for settling crop insurance claims by farmers. Under the soil profile maps, detailed Soil Profile Maps (on a 1:10,000 scale) of about 142 million hectares of agricultural land are envisaged to be prepared.Incorrect
Answer: D
Explanation:
● Statements 1 and 2 are incorrect: Three major components of DPI are envisaged under the Digital Agriculture Mission: AgriStack, Krishi Decision Support System (DSS), and Soil Profile Maps. The farmer-centric DPI AgriStack consists of three foundational agri-sector registries or databases: Farmers’ Registry, Geo-referenced Village Maps, and Crop Sown Registry, all of which will be created and maintained by state/ UT governments. Farmers will be given a digital identity (‘Farmer ID’) similar to Aadhaar, which will be linked dynamically to records of land, ownership of livestock, crops sown, demographic details, family details, schemes and benefits availed, etc. The Crop Sown Registry will provide details of crops planted by farmers. The maps will link geographic information on land records with their physical locations. The Krishi Decision Support System, which was unveiled recently, will create a comprehensive geospatial system to unify remote sensing-based information on crops, soil, weather, and water resources, etc. This information will support crop map generation for identifying crop sown patterns, droughts/ flood monitoring, and technology-/ model-based yield assessment for settling crop insurance claims by farmers. Under the soil profile maps, detailed Soil Profile Maps (on a 1:10,000 scale) of about 142 million hectares of agricultural land are envisaged to be prepared. -
Question 2 of 5
2. Question
1 pointsConsider the following statements:
- The constitution of India provides that the proceedings in the Supreme Court and High Courts be conducted in English unless Parliament decides otherwise.
- The Constitution of India allows the Governor of a State to authorise the use of Hindi or any other official language in the State’s High Court with the prior consent of the President.
- Presently all High Courts of India are allowed to use Hindi in their proceedings post a decision of the Cabinet Committee in 1964
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Correct
Answer: A
Explanation:
- Statements 1 and 2 are correct: Article 348(1): All proceedings in the Supreme Court and High Courts be conducted in English unless Parliament decides otherwise. Presently No law has been made in this regard by the Parliament so far. Therefore, English continues to be the language for all the proceedings of the Supreme Court. Article 348(2) allows the Governor of a State to authorise the use of Hindi or any other official language in the State’s High Court with the previous consent of the President.
Statement 3 is incorrect: Out of 25 High Courts, only 4- Rajasthan, Madhya Pradesh, Uttar Pradesh, and Bihar — are allowed to use Hindi in their proceedings. These HCs were allowed to Use of Hindi language after a decision of the Cabinet Committee in 1964.
Incorrect
Answer: A
Explanation:
- Statements 1 and 2 are correct: Article 348(1): All proceedings in the Supreme Court and High Courts be conducted in English unless Parliament decides otherwise. Presently No law has been made in this regard by the Parliament so far. Therefore, English continues to be the language for all the proceedings of the Supreme Court. Article 348(2) allows the Governor of a State to authorise the use of Hindi or any other official language in the State’s High Court with the previous consent of the President.
Statement 3 is incorrect: Out of 25 High Courts, only 4- Rajasthan, Madhya Pradesh, Uttar Pradesh, and Bihar — are allowed to use Hindi in their proceedings. These HCs were allowed to Use of Hindi language after a decision of the Cabinet Committee in 1964.
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Question 3 of 5
3. Question
1 pointsConsider the following statements with respect to the Mixed Member Proportional Voting System (MMPS) :
- Both party and candidate are chosen by voters in a mutually exclusive manner with no effect on each other.
- It allows a voter to choose a candidate from a different party if they don’t like the local candidate from their preferred party.
- Newzealand is the only country in the world to adopt the MMPS.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Correct
Answer: B
Explanation:
- Statements 1 and 2 are correct: Under Mixed Member Proportional Voting System or MMP Voting System, voters cast two votes- a ‘party vote’that determines the overall composition of the Parliament and an ‘electorate vote’ to elect a local MP for their geographical constituency. Under MMP systems, the PR seats are awarded to compensate for any disproportionality produced by the district seat results. For example, if one party wins 10 per cent of the vote nationally but no district seats, then it will be awarded enough seats from the PR lists to bring its representation up to 10 per cent of the seats in the legislature. It allows a voter to choose a candidate from a different party if they don’t like the local candidate from their preferred party. The electorate vote does not alter the overall party representation in Parliament. It provides flexibility, as both party and candidate are chosen by voters in a mutually exclusive manner with no effect on each other.
Statement 3 is incorrect: The specific system of New Zealand for electing its parliament is called MMP, while in other countries similar systems are known under other names. The seat linkage compensatory mixed system often referred to as MMP originates in Germany, and was later adopted with modifications under the name of MMP in New Zealand. In Germany, where is was differentiated from a different compensatory mixed system it was always known as personalized proportional representation (PPR). In the Canadian province of Quebec, where an MMP model was studied in 2007, it is called the compensatory mixed-member voting system. In South Africa, MMP is generally referred to as a “mixed-system”.
Incorrect
Answer: B
Explanation:
- Statements 1 and 2 are correct: Under Mixed Member Proportional Voting System or MMP Voting System, voters cast two votes- a ‘party vote’that determines the overall composition of the Parliament and an ‘electorate vote’ to elect a local MP for their geographical constituency. Under MMP systems, the PR seats are awarded to compensate for any disproportionality produced by the district seat results. For example, if one party wins 10 per cent of the vote nationally but no district seats, then it will be awarded enough seats from the PR lists to bring its representation up to 10 per cent of the seats in the legislature. It allows a voter to choose a candidate from a different party if they don’t like the local candidate from their preferred party. The electorate vote does not alter the overall party representation in Parliament. It provides flexibility, as both party and candidate are chosen by voters in a mutually exclusive manner with no effect on each other.
Statement 3 is incorrect: The specific system of New Zealand for electing its parliament is called MMP, while in other countries similar systems are known under other names. The seat linkage compensatory mixed system often referred to as MMP originates in Germany, and was later adopted with modifications under the name of MMP in New Zealand. In Germany, where is was differentiated from a different compensatory mixed system it was always known as personalized proportional representation (PPR). In the Canadian province of Quebec, where an MMP model was studied in 2007, it is called the compensatory mixed-member voting system. In South Africa, MMP is generally referred to as a “mixed-system”.
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Question 4 of 5
4. Question
1 pointsConsider the following pairs:
Vision disorder Characteristic
- Myopia Makes faraway objects blurry.
- Hypermetropia Makes nearby objects blurry
- Presbyopia Distorted vision in children
How many of the pairs given above are correctly matched?
Correct
Answer: B
Explanation: The Drugs Controller General of India (DCGI) has given its final approval for ENTOD Pharmaceuticals PresVu eye drops specifically developed for individuals affected by presbyopia.
- Pairs 1 and 2 are correctly matched: Myopia (nearsightedness):Makes faraway objects blurry. This happens when the shape of the eye causes light to focus in front of the retina instead of on it. Hypermetropia (farsightedness) makes nearby objects blurry. Hypermetropi can be corrected with convex prescription lenses, such as glasses or contact lenses
- Pair 3 is incorrectly matched: Presbyopia is an age-related condition that makes it difficult to see things up close. It’s caused by the eye’s lens becoming less flexible and hardening over time, making it unable to focus on nearby objects. Presbyopia is a normal part of aging and affects almost everyone, usually after age 40. Astigmatism isa common eye condition that causes blurred or distorted vision
Incorrect
Answer: B
Explanation: The Drugs Controller General of India (DCGI) has given its final approval for ENTOD Pharmaceuticals PresVu eye drops specifically developed for individuals affected by presbyopia.
- Pairs 1 and 2 are correctly matched: Myopia (nearsightedness):Makes faraway objects blurry. This happens when the shape of the eye causes light to focus in front of the retina instead of on it. Hypermetropia (farsightedness) makes nearby objects blurry. Hypermetropi can be corrected with convex prescription lenses, such as glasses or contact lenses
- Pair 3 is incorrectly matched: Presbyopia is an age-related condition that makes it difficult to see things up close. It’s caused by the eye’s lens becoming less flexible and hardening over time, making it unable to focus on nearby objects. Presbyopia is a normal part of aging and affects almost everyone, usually after age 40. Astigmatism isa common eye condition that causes blurred or distorted vision
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Question 5 of 5
5. Question
1 pointsConsider the following statements with respect to the Law Commission of India:
- Law Commission of India is a non-statutory body and is constituted by a notification of the Government of India.
- The first Law Commission was established under the Charter Act of 1833 under the Chairmanship of Lord Macaulay.
- Minister of Law and Justice is the ex-officio chairman of the Law Commission.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Correct
Answer: A
Explanation:
- Statement 1 is correct: Law Commission of India is a non-statutory body and is constituted by a notification of the Government of India, Ministry of Law & Justice, Department of Legal Affairs with a definite terms of reference to carry out research in the field of law and the Commission makes recommendations to the Government (in the form of Reports) as per its terms of reference. The Union government has released a notification to set up the 23rd Law Commission of India. The objectives of the Commission are:
- To identify laws that have become obsolete and can be repealed.
- To propose legislation necessary for implementing the Directive Principles and achieving the objectives mentioned in the Preamble of the Constitution.
- Statement 2 is correct: First Law Commission: (Pre-Independence): It was established in 1834 under the Charter Act of 1833 under the Chairmanship of Lord Macaulay. It recommended codification of the Criminal Procedure Code. First Law Commission (Post-Independence)- It was set up in 1955, under the chairmanship of Motilal Chimanlal Setalvad (the first Attorney General of India)
Statement 3 is incorrect: Chairperson is usually a retired judge of the Supreme Court. Ex-Officio members are Secretaries of the Legal Affairs and Legislative departments. Tenure of the 23rd law commission is 3 Years (From September 1, 2024 to August 31, 2027). The chairperson and four full-time members can be serving SC or HC judges or “other category of persons”, who can in theory be any expert chosen by the government.
Incorrect
Answer: A
Explanation:
- Statement 1 is correct: Law Commission of India is a non-statutory body and is constituted by a notification of the Government of India, Ministry of Law & Justice, Department of Legal Affairs with a definite terms of reference to carry out research in the field of law and the Commission makes recommendations to the Government (in the form of Reports) as per its terms of reference. The Union government has released a notification to set up the 23rd Law Commission of India. The objectives of the Commission are:
- To identify laws that have become obsolete and can be repealed.
- To propose legislation necessary for implementing the Directive Principles and achieving the objectives mentioned in the Preamble of the Constitution.
- Statement 2 is correct: First Law Commission: (Pre-Independence): It was established in 1834 under the Charter Act of 1833 under the Chairmanship of Lord Macaulay. It recommended codification of the Criminal Procedure Code. First Law Commission (Post-Independence)- It was set up in 1955, under the chairmanship of Motilal Chimanlal Setalvad (the first Attorney General of India)
Statement 3 is incorrect: Chairperson is usually a retired judge of the Supreme Court. Ex-Officio members are Secretaries of the Legal Affairs and Legislative departments. Tenure of the 23rd law commission is 3 Years (From September 1, 2024 to August 31, 2027). The chairperson and four full-time members can be serving SC or HC judges or “other category of persons”, who can in theory be any expert chosen by the government.
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