Daily Quiz 11 March 2025
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Question 1 of 5
1. Question
1 pointsConsider the following:
- Information, disclosure of which would affect the sovereignty and integrity of
India, relation with foreign State
- Information which has been expressly forbidden to be published by any court of law
- Information, the disclosure of which would cause a breach of privilege of Parliament or the
State Legislature;
- Information available to a person in his fiduciary relationship
- Information which would impede the process of investigation or apprehension or prosecution
of offenders
How many of the above categories of information cannot be revealed under the Right To Information Act, 2005?
Correct
Answer: D
Explanation:
● Under the Section 8 of the Right to Information Act, 20025, the following categories of information cannot be revealed under the Right To Information Act, 2005:
○ Point 1 is correct: Information, disclosure of which would prejudicially affect the sovereignty and integrity of India, the security, strategic, scientific or economic interests of the State, relation with foreign State or lead to incitement of an offence
○ Point 2 is correct: Information which has been expressly forbidden to be published by any court of law or tribunal or the disclosure of which may constitute contempt of court
○ Point 3 is correct: Information, the disclosure of which would cause a breach of privilege of Parliament or the State Legislature
○ information including commercial confidence, trade secrets or intellectual property, the disclosure of which would harm the competitive position of a third party, unless the competent authority is satisfied that larger public interest warrants the disclosure of such information
○ Point 4 is correct: Information available to a person in his fiduciary relationship, unless the competent authority is satisfied that the larger public interest warrants the disclosure of such information
○ Information received in confidence from foreign Government
○ Information, the disclosure of which would endanger the life or physical safety of any person or identify the source of information or assistance given in confidence for law enforcement or security purposes
○ Point 5 is correct:Information which would impede the process of investigation or apprehension or prosecution of offendersIncorrect
Answer: D
Explanation:
● Under the Section 8 of the Right to Information Act, 20025, the following categories of information cannot be revealed under the Right To Information Act, 2005:
○ Point 1 is correct: Information, disclosure of which would prejudicially affect the sovereignty and integrity of India, the security, strategic, scientific or economic interests of the State, relation with foreign State or lead to incitement of an offence
○ Point 2 is correct: Information which has been expressly forbidden to be published by any court of law or tribunal or the disclosure of which may constitute contempt of court
○ Point 3 is correct: Information, the disclosure of which would cause a breach of privilege of Parliament or the State Legislature
○ information including commercial confidence, trade secrets or intellectual property, the disclosure of which would harm the competitive position of a third party, unless the competent authority is satisfied that larger public interest warrants the disclosure of such information
○ Point 4 is correct: Information available to a person in his fiduciary relationship, unless the competent authority is satisfied that the larger public interest warrants the disclosure of such information
○ Information received in confidence from foreign Government
○ Information, the disclosure of which would endanger the life or physical safety of any person or identify the source of information or assistance given in confidence for law enforcement or security purposes
○ Point 5 is correct:Information which would impede the process of investigation or apprehension or prosecution of offenders -
Question 2 of 5
2. Question
1 pointsConsider the following statements:
- Only the State Drug Controllers can approve any novel fixed dose combination (FDC) drugs for safety and efficacy.
- Licenses for manufacturing of certain drugs are issued by the State Drug Authorities as per the provisions of Drugs & Cosmetics Act and Rules.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Correct
Answer: B
Explanation:
- Statement 1 is not correct: Only the Central Drugs Standard Control Organization (CDSCO) can approve any novel fixed dose combination (FDC) drugs for safety and efficacy.
- The Central Drugs Standard Control Organization (CDSCO) is the Central Drug Authority for discharging functions assigned to the Central Government under the Drugs and Cosmetics Act.
- Functions: Regulatory control over the import of drugs, approval of new drugs and clinical trials, meetings of Drugs Consultative Committee (DCC) and Drugs Technical Advisory Board (DTAB), approval of certain licenses as Central License Approving Authority is exercised by the CDSCO headquarters.
- Statement 2 is correct: License for manufacturing of certain drugs are issued by the State Drug Authorities as per the provisions of Drugs & Cosmetics Act and Rules. The Licensing Authority for such licenSmall Modular Reactors (SMRs) have been extensively deployed worldwide, surpassing India’s experience with small reactors.
ses is the Drugs Controller of the state.
Incorrect
Answer: B
Explanation:
- Statement 1 is not correct: Only the Central Drugs Standard Control Organization (CDSCO) can approve any novel fixed dose combination (FDC) drugs for safety and efficacy.
- The Central Drugs Standard Control Organization (CDSCO) is the Central Drug Authority for discharging functions assigned to the Central Government under the Drugs and Cosmetics Act.
- Functions: Regulatory control over the import of drugs, approval of new drugs and clinical trials, meetings of Drugs Consultative Committee (DCC) and Drugs Technical Advisory Board (DTAB), approval of certain licenses as Central License Approving Authority is exercised by the CDSCO headquarters.
- Statement 2 is correct: License for manufacturing of certain drugs are issued by the State Drug Authorities as per the provisions of Drugs & Cosmetics Act and Rules. The Licensing Authority for such licenSmall Modular Reactors (SMRs) have been extensively deployed worldwide, surpassing India’s experience with small reactors.
ses is the Drugs Controller of the state.
-
Question 3 of 5
3. Question
1 pointsConsider the following statements:
- Thorium can be irradiated with high assay low enriched uranium (HALEU) in pressurised heavy-water reactors (PHWRs) at scale.
- Fast breeder reactors are currently deployed at a large scale in India using recycled nuclear fuel.
- 220 MW Bharat Small Reactors (BSRs) are being planned under an innovative public-private partnership model.
How many of the above statements are correct?
Correct
Answer: B
Explanation:
- Statement 1 is correct: Thorium has been our long-standing hope for India’s true energy security and it can be irradiated along with high assay low enriched uranium (HALEU) in pressurised heavy-water reactors (PHWRs) at scale.
- Statement 2 is incorrect: While India is actively developing and deploying Fast Breeder Reactors (FBRs) as part of its nuclear power program, they are not currently deployed at a large scale and are still considered to be in the testing and development phase. India have already closed the nuclear fuel cycle and produced enough MoX fuel for recycling in the 500 MWe Prototype Fast Breeder Reactor, the next frontier for power generation capacity growth. The large-scale deployment of these reactors that would use recycled fuel and breed much more, however, is still eluding us. Large-scale deployment has not yet happened, making this statement incorrect.
Statement 3 is correct: The Nuclear Power Corporation of India Limited (NPCIL) has issued a Request for Proposals (RFP) inviting Indian industries to participate in setting up 220 MW Bharat Small Reactors (BSR) for captive power generation. These compact, Pressurized Heavy Water Reactors (PHWRs) are designed to provide a sustainable, low-carbon energy solution for hard-to-abate industries, enabling them to decarbonize their operations. Plans are in place to establish Bharat Small Reactors (BSRs) through a public-private partnership model.
Incorrect
Answer: B
Explanation:
- Statement 1 is correct: Thorium has been our long-standing hope for India’s true energy security and it can be irradiated along with high assay low enriched uranium (HALEU) in pressurised heavy-water reactors (PHWRs) at scale.
- Statement 2 is incorrect: While India is actively developing and deploying Fast Breeder Reactors (FBRs) as part of its nuclear power program, they are not currently deployed at a large scale and are still considered to be in the testing and development phase. India have already closed the nuclear fuel cycle and produced enough MoX fuel for recycling in the 500 MWe Prototype Fast Breeder Reactor, the next frontier for power generation capacity growth. The large-scale deployment of these reactors that would use recycled fuel and breed much more, however, is still eluding us. Large-scale deployment has not yet happened, making this statement incorrect.
Statement 3 is correct: The Nuclear Power Corporation of India Limited (NPCIL) has issued a Request for Proposals (RFP) inviting Indian industries to participate in setting up 220 MW Bharat Small Reactors (BSR) for captive power generation. These compact, Pressurized Heavy Water Reactors (PHWRs) are designed to provide a sustainable, low-carbon energy solution for hard-to-abate industries, enabling them to decarbonize their operations. Plans are in place to establish Bharat Small Reactors (BSRs) through a public-private partnership model.
-
Question 4 of 5
4. Question
1 pointsConsider the following statements:
- The Government of India has released a list of 100 critical minerals for India.
- Cobalt, Copper and Gallium are part of the list of the critical minerals in India.
- Khanij Bidesh India Ltd. (KABIL) has been incorporated with the objective to identify and acquire overseas mineral assets of critical & strategic nature.
How many of the above statements are correct?
Correct
Answer: B
Explanation:
- Statement 1 is not correct and statement 2 is correct: The Government has released a list of 30 critical minerals for India. These minerals are Antimony, Beryllium, Bismuth, Cobalt, Copper, Gallium, Germanium, Graphite, Hafnium, Indium, Lithium, Molybdenum, Niobium, Nickel, PGE, Phosphorous, Potash, REE,Rhenium, Silicon, Strontium, Tantalum, Tellurium, Tin, Titanium, Tungsten, Vanadium,Zirconium, Selenium and Cadmium.
Statement 3 is correct: A joint venture company namely Khanij Bidesh India Ltd. (KABIL) has been incorporated with the equity contribution from three Central Public Sector Enterprises namely, National Aluminium Company Ltd, Hindustan Copper Ltd and Mineral Exploration Company Ltd with the objective to identify and acquire overseas mineral assets of critical & strategic nature such as Lithium, Cobalt & others so as to ensure supply side assurance. KABIL has engagements with countries like Argentina, Australia etc. to acquire critical & strategic minerals assets.
Incorrect
Answer: B
Explanation:
- Statement 1 is not correct and statement 2 is correct: The Government has released a list of 30 critical minerals for India. These minerals are Antimony, Beryllium, Bismuth, Cobalt, Copper, Gallium, Germanium, Graphite, Hafnium, Indium, Lithium, Molybdenum, Niobium, Nickel, PGE, Phosphorous, Potash, REE,Rhenium, Silicon, Strontium, Tantalum, Tellurium, Tin, Titanium, Tungsten, Vanadium,Zirconium, Selenium and Cadmium.
Statement 3 is correct: A joint venture company namely Khanij Bidesh India Ltd. (KABIL) has been incorporated with the equity contribution from three Central Public Sector Enterprises namely, National Aluminium Company Ltd, Hindustan Copper Ltd and Mineral Exploration Company Ltd with the objective to identify and acquire overseas mineral assets of critical & strategic nature such as Lithium, Cobalt & others so as to ensure supply side assurance. KABIL has engagements with countries like Argentina, Australia etc. to acquire critical & strategic minerals assets.
-
Question 5 of 5
5. Question
1 pointsConsider the following statements regarding the Ethanol Blended Petrol (EBP) Programme in India:
- The target for 20% ethanol blending in petrol was initially set for 2030 but later advanced to 2025.
- Ethanol production under the EBP programme in India primarily relies on sugarcane-based ethanol.
- Ethanol factories are classified under the ‘red category’ due to their high pollution score.
- Environmental clearances for all ethanol factories explicitly mention all potential emissions, including hazardous chemicals like acetaldehyde and formaldehyde.
How many of the above statements are correct?
Correct
Answer: B
Explanation:
- Statement 1 is correct: The government initially set the target for 2030 but later revised it to 2025. Ethanol Blended Petrol (EBP) programme was introduced in India as a pilot project in 2001. The Central government in 2020 decided to advance the target of 20% ethanol blending in petrol from 2030 to 2025 as the way towards a greener future. The EBP programme was said to be the way of addressing multiple concerns of growing energy consumption, oil imports, and increasing carbon emissions from vehicles.
- Statement 2 is incorrect: In India, ethanol for blending is also made using grains such as broken rice and corn, not just sugarcane. Under the EBP, ethanol is made using grains, such as broken rice and corn, and is therefore said to double farmers’ income as well.
- Statement 3 is correct: All ethanol production plants and distilleries fall under the ‘red category’, which means that they have a pollution score of 60 or more, as per Central government norms. But to facilitate a smoother and quicker clearance process, the Centre has allowed them to be set up without public hearings. Many of them are near human settlements.
Statement 4 is not correct: Experts say that hazardous, cancer-causing chemicals such as acetaldehyde, formaldehyde, and acrolein are some of the emissions from ethanol factories, but these don’t find a mention in the clearances given to the ethanol factories in the East Godavari, Krishna and NTR districts in the State, as per environmentalists.
Incorrect
Answer: B
Explanation:
- Statement 1 is correct: The government initially set the target for 2030 but later revised it to 2025. Ethanol Blended Petrol (EBP) programme was introduced in India as a pilot project in 2001. The Central government in 2020 decided to advance the target of 20% ethanol blending in petrol from 2030 to 2025 as the way towards a greener future. The EBP programme was said to be the way of addressing multiple concerns of growing energy consumption, oil imports, and increasing carbon emissions from vehicles.
- Statement 2 is incorrect: In India, ethanol for blending is also made using grains such as broken rice and corn, not just sugarcane. Under the EBP, ethanol is made using grains, such as broken rice and corn, and is therefore said to double farmers’ income as well.
- Statement 3 is correct: All ethanol production plants and distilleries fall under the ‘red category’, which means that they have a pollution score of 60 or more, as per Central government norms. But to facilitate a smoother and quicker clearance process, the Centre has allowed them to be set up without public hearings. Many of them are near human settlements.
Statement 4 is not correct: Experts say that hazardous, cancer-causing chemicals such as acetaldehyde, formaldehyde, and acrolein are some of the emissions from ethanol factories, but these don’t find a mention in the clearances given to the ethanol factories in the East Godavari, Krishna and NTR districts in the State, as per environmentalists.
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