Daily Quiz 11 July 2024
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Question 1 of 5
1. Question
1 pointsConsider the following statements with respect to the Pension Fund Regulatory and Development Authority (PFRDA):
- It is a quasi-government organisation with executive, legislative and judicial powers.
- It oversees and regulates both the Atal Pension Yojana (APY) and the National Pension System (NPS).
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Correct
Answer: C
Explanation:
- Statement 1 is correct:The Pension Fund Regulatory & Development Authority Act was passed on 19th September, 2013 and the same was notified on 1st February, 2014. The National Pension System (NPS) and the pension plans covered by this Act are subject to regulation, promotion, and maintenance by the Pension Fund Regulatory and Development Authority (PFRDA), a legislative body established by Parliament. It is a central autonomous body that performs as a quasi-government organisation with executive, legislative, and judicial powers.
- Statement 2 is correct:PFRDA oversees and regulates both the Atal Pension Yojana (APY) and the National Pension System (NPS). The Central Record Keeping Agency (CRA) and other intermediary organisations, including Pension Fund Managers, fall under its purview. It administers the APY and develops, promotes, and regulates the pension industry under the NPS.
Incorrect
Answer: C
Explanation:
- Statement 1 is correct:The Pension Fund Regulatory & Development Authority Act was passed on 19th September, 2013 and the same was notified on 1st February, 2014. The National Pension System (NPS) and the pension plans covered by this Act are subject to regulation, promotion, and maintenance by the Pension Fund Regulatory and Development Authority (PFRDA), a legislative body established by Parliament. It is a central autonomous body that performs as a quasi-government organisation with executive, legislative, and judicial powers.
- Statement 2 is correct:PFRDA oversees and regulates both the Atal Pension Yojana (APY) and the National Pension System (NPS). The Central Record Keeping Agency (CRA) and other intermediary organisations, including Pension Fund Managers, fall under its purview. It administers the APY and develops, promotes, and regulates the pension industry under the NPS.
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Question 2 of 5
2. Question
1 pointsWhich of the following statement with respect to Plutonium Isotope Fission is not correct?
Correct
Answer: C
Explanation:India began the core-loading process of the prototype fast breeder reactor (PFBR) at the Madras Atomic Power Station in Kalpakkam, marking the start of the second stage of its nuclear power programme.
- Statement (c) isincorrect: Fission is a nuclear reaction or a radioactive decay process in which the nucleus of an atom splits into two or more smaller nuclei, along with the release of a significant amount of energy. This process often produces free neutrons and photons (in the form of gamma rays), and releases a large amount of energy due to the conversion of mass into energy. Fission can occur spontaneously, as in the case of certain heavy isotopes, or it can be induced by the absorption of a neutron. The most common elements used in fission reactions are uranium-235 and plutonium-239, which are used in both nuclear reactors and nuclear weapons. When Pu-239 captures a neutron, it has a 27-38% chance of becoming Pu-240 instead of undergoing fission. Pu-240, upon capturing a neutron, usually turns into Pu-241. Pu-240 undergoes spontaneous fission, i.e. without ‘external’ neutrons striking it first, and emits alpha particles. Generally, if a mass of plutonium contains more than 19% of Pu-240, it is considered to be reactor-grade rather than weapons-grade.
Incorrect
Answer: C
Explanation:India began the core-loading process of the prototype fast breeder reactor (PFBR) at the Madras Atomic Power Station in Kalpakkam, marking the start of the second stage of its nuclear power programme.
- Statement (c) isincorrect: Fission is a nuclear reaction or a radioactive decay process in which the nucleus of an atom splits into two or more smaller nuclei, along with the release of a significant amount of energy. This process often produces free neutrons and photons (in the form of gamma rays), and releases a large amount of energy due to the conversion of mass into energy. Fission can occur spontaneously, as in the case of certain heavy isotopes, or it can be induced by the absorption of a neutron. The most common elements used in fission reactions are uranium-235 and plutonium-239, which are used in both nuclear reactors and nuclear weapons. When Pu-239 captures a neutron, it has a 27-38% chance of becoming Pu-240 instead of undergoing fission. Pu-240, upon capturing a neutron, usually turns into Pu-241. Pu-240 undergoes spontaneous fission, i.e. without ‘external’ neutrons striking it first, and emits alpha particles. Generally, if a mass of plutonium contains more than 19% of Pu-240, it is considered to be reactor-grade rather than weapons-grade.
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Question 3 of 5
3. Question
1 pointsThe Reciprocal Exchange of Logistics Agreement (RELOS) has recently been approved by India and Russia. With respect to this, consider the following statements:
- It aims to simplify military-to-military exchanges for training as well as humanitarian assistance efforts.
- It is to be valid for 10 years from the date of signing by both parties.
- It is to be automatically dissolved unless both parties notify desire to continue.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Correct
Answer: A
Explanation:Logistics agreements are administrative arrangements facilitating access to military facilities for exchange of fuel and provisions on mutual agreement, simplifying logistical support and increasing the operational turnaround of the military when operating away from India.
- Statement 1 iscorrect: The Reciprocal Exchange of Logistics Agreement (RELOS) has been delayed for years but is now approved by Russia and awaits final signing by both parties. Simplifies military-to-military exchanges for: Exercises, Training, Port calls and Humanitarian Assistance and Disaster Relief (HADR) efforts.
- Statements 2 and 3 areincorrect :The cooperation agreement covers interactions between troops and addresses issues related to the supply and development of weapons and military equipment. The agreement, as and when concluded, will be valid for five years and will be renewed automatically unless either party notifies the other of its desire to terminate it.
Incorrect
Answer: A
Explanation:Logistics agreements are administrative arrangements facilitating access to military facilities for exchange of fuel and provisions on mutual agreement, simplifying logistical support and increasing the operational turnaround of the military when operating away from India.
- Statement 1 iscorrect: The Reciprocal Exchange of Logistics Agreement (RELOS) has been delayed for years but is now approved by Russia and awaits final signing by both parties. Simplifies military-to-military exchanges for: Exercises, Training, Port calls and Humanitarian Assistance and Disaster Relief (HADR) efforts.
- Statements 2 and 3 areincorrect :The cooperation agreement covers interactions between troops and addresses issues related to the supply and development of weapons and military equipment. The agreement, as and when concluded, will be valid for five years and will be renewed automatically unless either party notifies the other of its desire to terminate it.
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Question 4 of 5
4. Question
1 pointsConsider the following statements with respect to the Speaker of Loksabha:
- The date of election of the Speaker is fixed by the President of India.
- The Speaker is elected from among the Lok Sabha members by a simple majority of members present and voting.
- The Speaker holds office from the date of election till the dissolution of Loksabha before the next general Loksabha elections.
Which of the following statements given above is/are correct?
Correct
Answer: A
Explanation: Om Birla was elected the Lok Sabha Speaker (2nd time) by defeating the opposition candidate Kodikkunil Suresh.
- Statement 1 is correct: Article 93 says that the House of the People shall, as soon as may be, choose two members to be the Speaker and Deputy Speaker and, so often as the office of Speaker or Deputy Speaker becomes vacant, the House shall choose another member. The date of election of the Speaker is fixed by the President of India. The Speaker must be a member of the House. No specific qualifications are prescribed, but an understanding of the Constitution and laws is advantageous.
- Statement 2 is correct: Typically, a member from the ruling party is elected as Speaker. The ruling party nominates its candidate after informal consultations with leaders of other parties and groups in the House. This convention ensures the Speaker enjoys respect from all sections of the House.The Speaker (along with the Deputy Speaker) is elected from among the Lok Sabha members by a simple majority of members present and voting.The candidate’s name is usually proposed by the Prime Minister or the Minister of Parliamentary Affairs.
Statement 3 is incorrect:The Speaker holds office from the date of election until immediately before the first meeting of the next Lok Sabha (5 years). The Speaker is eligible for re-election. Upon dissolution of the Lok Sabha, the Speaker continues in office until the newly-elected Lok Sabha meets.
Incorrect
Answer: A
Explanation: Om Birla was elected the Lok Sabha Speaker (2nd time) by defeating the opposition candidate Kodikkunil Suresh.
- Statement 1 is correct: Article 93 says that the House of the People shall, as soon as may be, choose two members to be the Speaker and Deputy Speaker and, so often as the office of Speaker or Deputy Speaker becomes vacant, the House shall choose another member. The date of election of the Speaker is fixed by the President of India. The Speaker must be a member of the House. No specific qualifications are prescribed, but an understanding of the Constitution and laws is advantageous.
- Statement 2 is correct: Typically, a member from the ruling party is elected as Speaker. The ruling party nominates its candidate after informal consultations with leaders of other parties and groups in the House. This convention ensures the Speaker enjoys respect from all sections of the House.The Speaker (along with the Deputy Speaker) is elected from among the Lok Sabha members by a simple majority of members present and voting.The candidate’s name is usually proposed by the Prime Minister or the Minister of Parliamentary Affairs.
Statement 3 is incorrect:The Speaker holds office from the date of election until immediately before the first meeting of the next Lok Sabha (5 years). The Speaker is eligible for re-election. Upon dissolution of the Lok Sabha, the Speaker continues in office until the newly-elected Lok Sabha meets.
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Question 5 of 5
5. Question
1 pointsConsider the following statements with respect to the Leader of Opposition(LOP) in Lok Sabha:
- The leader of the largest opposition party with at least one-tenth of the total strength of the Lok Sabha is recognized as the Leader of the Opposition.
- The leaderof the opposition in the houses of Indian parliament is a statutory post.
- The LOP is entitled to salary, allowances, and other facilities equivalent to that of a cabinet minister.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Correct
Answer: D
Explanation: Rahul Gandhi will be the Leader of Opposition in Lok Sabha. This will be the first time in 10 years that the Lok Sabha will have a Leader of Opposition.
- Statement 1 is correct:The Leader of the Opposition in Lok Sabha leads the largest non-governmental party, representing opposition viewpoints. Historically significant, the role ensures diverse perspectives in parliamentary debates and holds the government accountable. The leader of the largest opposition party with at least one-tenth of the total strength of the Lok Sabha is recognized as the Leader of the Opposition. The LOP is a member of crucial committees such as Public Accounts (Chairman), Public Undertakings, Estimates, and several Joint Parliamentary Committees.
- Statements 2 and 3 are correct: The LOP provides constructive criticism of government policies and offers an alternative government. The position was accorded statutory recognition under the Salaries and Allowances of Leader of Opposition in Parliament Act, 1977. The LOP is entitled to salary, allowances, and other facilities equivalent to that of a cabinet minister. Ram Subhag Singh became the first officially recognized Leader of the Opposition. The Leader of the Opposition in Lok Sabha holds a crucial role in India’s parliamentary democracy, serving as the voice of the opposition within the lower house of Parliament.
Incorrect
Answer: D
Explanation: Rahul Gandhi will be the Leader of Opposition in Lok Sabha. This will be the first time in 10 years that the Lok Sabha will have a Leader of Opposition.
- Statement 1 is correct:The Leader of the Opposition in Lok Sabha leads the largest non-governmental party, representing opposition viewpoints. Historically significant, the role ensures diverse perspectives in parliamentary debates and holds the government accountable. The leader of the largest opposition party with at least one-tenth of the total strength of the Lok Sabha is recognized as the Leader of the Opposition. The LOP is a member of crucial committees such as Public Accounts (Chairman), Public Undertakings, Estimates, and several Joint Parliamentary Committees.
- Statements 2 and 3 are correct: The LOP provides constructive criticism of government policies and offers an alternative government. The position was accorded statutory recognition under the Salaries and Allowances of Leader of Opposition in Parliament Act, 1977. The LOP is entitled to salary, allowances, and other facilities equivalent to that of a cabinet minister. Ram Subhag Singh became the first officially recognized Leader of the Opposition. The Leader of the Opposition in Lok Sabha holds a crucial role in India’s parliamentary democracy, serving as the voice of the opposition within the lower house of Parliament.
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