Daily Quiz 10 September 2024
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Question 1 of 5
1. Question
1 pointsWith respect to the arrest and bail provisions under the Prevention of Money Laundering Act, 2002 (PMLA), consider the following statements:
- Under the PMLA, Enforcement Directorate has been given the Power of Arrest.
- Twin conditions of bail under the PMLA cannot be relaxed under any cicrumstances, except for women and vulnerable groups.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Correct
Answer: A
Explanation:
- Statement 1 is correct: Section 19 of PMLA gives Power of Arrest to Enforcement Directorate. Section 50 of the PMLA empowers the ED to summon individuals and require them to make statements during investigations. SC in Pankaj Bansal v. Union of India (2023), ruled that the accused have a fundamental right under Article 20, to be informed of the grounds of their arrest.
- Statement 2 is incorrect: Twin conditions for bail under PMLA Section 45 provides that a court may grant bail to an accused if it is satisfied with two essential conditions:
- Reasonable Grounds for Innocence: The court must believe that there are reasonable grounds for believing that the accused is not guilty of the offence.
- No Likelihood of Committing Offence on Bail: Additionally, the court must be convinced that the accused is not likely to commit any offence while on bail.
SC in Delhi excise policy case held that these conditions can be “relaxed”;
if the accused has undergone a long period of incarceration without commencement of trial. In addition, Clause (1) of Section 45 of the Prevention of Money Laundering Act allows courts the discretion to exempt persons below 16 years of age, women, the sick, or the infirm from the dual conditions set for bail, providing humane relief.
Incorrect
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Question 2 of 5
2. Question
1 pointsConsider the following statements with respect to the recently launched BioE3 Policy:
- It aims to encourage High-Performance Manufacturing across various thematic sectors.
- It aims to establish biomanufacturing hubs in tier-II and tier-III cities, which will utilise local biomass.
- Bio-AI hubs and Biofoundaries are to be established in line with global regulatory alignment
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Correct
Answer: D
Explanation:
Statements 1,2 and 3 are correct: The Bio E3 policy was recently approved by the Union Cabinet. Bio-E3 stands for Biotechnology for Economy, Environment and Employment. It aims to encourage High-Performance Manufacturing, and to Support innovation-driven Research, Development and entrepreneurship across various thematic sectors. It aims to establish Biomanufacturing & Bio-AI hubs and Biofoundries, with the aim to expand India’s skilled biotechnology workforce and aligns with Lifestyle for Environment’ programs. It aims to generate significant employment, especially in tier-II and tier-III cities through the establishment of biomanufacturing hubs. These hubs will utilise local biomass, fostering regional economic growth and equitable development. It emphasizes ethical biosafety and global regulatory alignment to boost India’s global competitiveness while ensuring responsible biotechnology development. Biofoundary is a facility that uses automation and analytics to support the engineering of biological systems.
Incorrect
Answer: D
Explanation:
Statements 1,2 and 3 are correct: The Bio E3 policy was recently approved by the Union Cabinet. Bio-E3 stands for Biotechnology for Economy, Environment and Employment. It aims to encourage High-Performance Manufacturing, and to Support innovation-driven Research, Development and entrepreneurship across various thematic sectors. It aims to establish Biomanufacturing & Bio-AI hubs and Biofoundries, with the aim to expand India’s skilled biotechnology workforce and aligns with Lifestyle for Environment’ programs. It aims to generate significant employment, especially in tier-II and tier-III cities through the establishment of biomanufacturing hubs. These hubs will utilise local biomass, fostering regional economic growth and equitable development. It emphasizes ethical biosafety and global regulatory alignment to boost India’s global competitiveness while ensuring responsible biotechnology development. Biofoundary is a facility that uses automation and analytics to support the engineering of biological systems.
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Question 3 of 5
3. Question
1 pointsConsider the following information:
Hydrogen Process of formation Emissions
1. Grey Hydrogen Fossil fuels Carbon dioxide 2. Pink Hydrogen Fossil fuels Carbon captured and stored 3. Turquoise hydrogen Nuclear energy powered hydrolysis Carbon neutral In how many of the above rows is the given information correctly matched?
Correct
Answer: A
Explanation: The Ministry of New and Renewable Energy (MNRE) has exempted export-oriented green hydrogen projects from its solar module shortlist of domestic manufacturers.
- Row 1 is correctly matched: Green hydrogen is produced by splitting water into hydrogen and oxygen using renewable energy sources like solar or wind power. It is a clean energy source and is considered climate-neutral. Grey hydrogen is produced from fossil fuels (natural gas, coal etc.) Its production releases carbon dioxide into the atmosphere. It’s the most common type of hydrogen produced currently, accounting for about 95% of the world’s hydrogen supply.
- Row 2 is incorrectly matched: Pink hydrogen is produced by splitting water into hydrogen and oxygen using nuclear energy-powered electrolysis. It is also known as purple or crimson hydrogen. Blue hydrogen is produced using the same process as grey hydrogen but its carbon emissions are captured and stored.
Row 3 is incorrectly matched: Turquoise hydrogen is produced by a process called methane pyrolysis, which splits methane into hydrogen and solid carbon. The process doesn’t release carbon dioxide (CO2), but the extraction of natural gas, the raw material for turquoise hydrogen, often does produce emissions. Turquoise hydrogen is not always completely climate neutral, but it can be more environmentally friendly than other methods of hydrogen production
Incorrect
Answer: A
Explanation: The Ministry of New and Renewable Energy (MNRE) has exempted export-oriented green hydrogen projects from its solar module shortlist of domestic manufacturers.
- Row 1 is correctly matched: Green hydrogen is produced by splitting water into hydrogen and oxygen using renewable energy sources like solar or wind power. It is a clean energy source and is considered climate-neutral. Grey hydrogen is produced from fossil fuels (natural gas, coal etc.) Its production releases carbon dioxide into the atmosphere. It’s the most common type of hydrogen produced currently, accounting for about 95% of the world’s hydrogen supply.
- Row 2 is incorrectly matched: Pink hydrogen is produced by splitting water into hydrogen and oxygen using nuclear energy-powered electrolysis. It is also known as purple or crimson hydrogen. Blue hydrogen is produced using the same process as grey hydrogen but its carbon emissions are captured and stored.
Row 3 is incorrectly matched: Turquoise hydrogen is produced by a process called methane pyrolysis, which splits methane into hydrogen and solid carbon. The process doesn’t release carbon dioxide (CO2), but the extraction of natural gas, the raw material for turquoise hydrogen, often does produce emissions. Turquoise hydrogen is not always completely climate neutral, but it can be more environmentally friendly than other methods of hydrogen production
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Question 4 of 5
4. Question
1 pointsConsider the following statements with respect to the Joint Logistics Node (JLN):
- It is a network of logistics centres that provides support to the Indian Armed Forces and streamlines their supply chain.
- JLNs provide integrated logistics cover to the Armed Forces for their small arms ammunition as well as rations and aviation clothing.
- India currently has only one operational JLN at Andaman and Nicobar.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Correct
Answer: A
Explanation: The first Joint Commanders Conference (JCC) is scheduled to be held in Lucknow. The meeting is expected to see extensive deliberations on the ongoing modernisation efforts in the Armed Forces.
- Statements 1 and 2 are correct: JLNs are a network of logistics centres that provides comprehensive support to the Indian Armed Forces and streamlines their supply chain. JLNs provide integrated logistics cover to the Armed Forces for their small arms ammunition, rations, fuel, general stores, civil hired transport, aviation clothing, spares. It helps to synergise their operational efforts.
Statement 3 is incorrect: India currently has three operational JLNs at Mumbai, Guwahati, and Port Blair. Upcoming JLNs: Leh, Siliguri, Sulur and Prayagraj.
Incorrect
Answer: A
Explanation: The first Joint Commanders Conference (JCC) is scheduled to be held in Lucknow. The meeting is expected to see extensive deliberations on the ongoing modernisation efforts in the Armed Forces.
- Statements 1 and 2 are correct: JLNs are a network of logistics centres that provides comprehensive support to the Indian Armed Forces and streamlines their supply chain. JLNs provide integrated logistics cover to the Armed Forces for their small arms ammunition, rations, fuel, general stores, civil hired transport, aviation clothing, spares. It helps to synergise their operational efforts.
Statement 3 is incorrect: India currently has three operational JLNs at Mumbai, Guwahati, and Port Blair. Upcoming JLNs: Leh, Siliguri, Sulur and Prayagraj.
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Question 5 of 5
5. Question
1 pointsWith respect to the Department-Related Parliamentary Standing Committees (DRSCs), consider the following statements:
- The Constitution of India provides for the origin and basis of setting up
- Each standing committee consists of 31 members, 21 from Lok Sabha and 10 from Rajya Sabha.
- The term of each standing committee member except the chairman is one year from the date of establishment.
- A Minister cannot be appointed to any of the DRSCs.
How many of the statements given above are correct?
Correct
Answer: B
Explanation:
- Statement 1 is incorrect while Statement 2 is correct: Department-related Parliamentary Standing Committees (DRPSCs) are crucial instruments of parliamentary control over the executive in India. They were originally set up in 1993 on the basis of reports of Rules Committees of Lok Sabha and Rajya Sabha. Each standing committee consists of 31 members (21 from Lok Sabha and 10 from Rajya Sabha).
- Statement 3 is incorrect: Chairpersons to 8 committees under the Rajya Sabha are appointed by the Chairman of the Rajya Sabha. Chairpersons to 16 committees under the Lok Sabha are appointed by the Speaker of the Lok Sabha. Tenure of all members, including the chairman, is 1 year.
Statement 4 is correct: A Minister cannot be appointed to any of the DRSCs and if a member of a DRSC becomes a minister, he ceases to be a member of that committee.
Incorrect
Answer: B
Explanation:
- Statement 1 is incorrect while Statement 2 is correct: Department-related Parliamentary Standing Committees (DRPSCs) are crucial instruments of parliamentary control over the executive in India. They were originally set up in 1993 on the basis of reports of Rules Committees of Lok Sabha and Rajya Sabha. Each standing committee consists of 31 members (21 from Lok Sabha and 10 from Rajya Sabha).
- Statement 3 is incorrect: Chairpersons to 8 committees under the Rajya Sabha are appointed by the Chairman of the Rajya Sabha. Chairpersons to 16 committees under the Lok Sabha are appointed by the Speaker of the Lok Sabha. Tenure of all members, including the chairman, is 1 year.
Statement 4 is correct: A Minister cannot be appointed to any of the DRSCs and if a member of a DRSC becomes a minister, he ceases to be a member of that committee.
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