Daily Quiz 07 September 2024
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Question 1 of 5
1. Question
1 pointsNorthern bald ibis, Bar-tailed godwit and Blue-tailed bee-eater best belong to the group of-
Correct
Answer: B
Explanation:
- Option (b) is correct: The population of northern bald ibis has increased from zero to nearly 300 since 2002. It became extinct in Central Europe during the 17th century due to excessive hunting. The Ibis is primarily a migratory bird, but due to the death of their wild-born elders, they have lost guidance on their migratory route. A group of conservationists from Austria is now guiding them to follow their migratory path. Ibis is known for its black plumage with an iridescent green sheen, a bald red head with black markings, and a long, downward-curved beak.They feed on insect larvae, and earthworms, and are not Scavengers. They prefer open areas with short grass, such as meadows, pastures etc. IUCN Status: Endangered (formerly Critically Endangered)
- Additional Information: Bar-tailed godwit is known for making the longest non-stop migration of any land bird, flying over 7,000 miles from New Zealand to Alaska. Blue-tailed bee eater is a tiny bird that migrates to peninsular India for breeding, and eats Indian dragonflies.
Incorrect
Answer: B
Explanation:
- Option (b) is correct: The population of northern bald ibis has increased from zero to nearly 300 since 2002. It became extinct in Central Europe during the 17th century due to excessive hunting. The Ibis is primarily a migratory bird, but due to the death of their wild-born elders, they have lost guidance on their migratory route. A group of conservationists from Austria is now guiding them to follow their migratory path. Ibis is known for its black plumage with an iridescent green sheen, a bald red head with black markings, and a long, downward-curved beak.They feed on insect larvae, and earthworms, and are not Scavengers. They prefer open areas with short grass, such as meadows, pastures etc. IUCN Status: Endangered (formerly Critically Endangered)
- Additional Information: Bar-tailed godwit is known for making the longest non-stop migration of any land bird, flying over 7,000 miles from New Zealand to Alaska. Blue-tailed bee eater is a tiny bird that migrates to peninsular India for breeding, and eats Indian dragonflies.
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Question 2 of 5
2. Question
1 pointsPradhan Mantri Jan-Dhan Yojana (PMJDY) is National Mission for Financial Inclusion to ensure access to financial services. With respect to the scheme, consider the following statements:
- There is no requirement to maintain any minimum balance in PMJDY accounts.
- Interest is earned on the deposit in PMJDY accounts.
- An overdraft facility up to Rs. 10,000 to eligible account holders is available.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Correct
Answer: D
Explanation: This year marks the 10-year completion of Pradhan Mantri Jan Dhan Yojana (PMJDY)
- Statements 1, 2 and 3 are correct: Pradhan Mantri Jan-Dhan Yojana (PMJDY) is National Mission for Financial Inclusion to ensure access to financial services, namely, a basic savings & deposit accounts, remittance, credit, insurance, pension in an affordable manner. Following benefits are available under the scheme:
- One basic savings bank account is opened for unbanked person.
- There is no requirement to maintain any minimum balance in PMJDY accounts.
- Interest is earned on the deposit in PMJDY accounts.
- Rupay Debit card is provided to PMJDY account holder.
- Accident Insurance Cover of Rs.1 lakh is available with RuPay card issued to the PMJDY account holders.
- An overdraft (OD) facility up to Rs. 10,000 to eligible account holders is available.
- PMJDY accounts are eligible for Direct Benefit Transfer (DBT), Pradhan Mantri Jeevan Jyoti Bima Yojana (PMJJBY), Pradhan Mantri Suraksha Bima Yojana (PMSBY), Atal Pension Yojana (APY), Micro Units Development & Refinance Agency Bank (MUDRA) scheme.
Incorrect
Answer: D
Explanation: This year marks the 10-year completion of Pradhan Mantri Jan Dhan Yojana (PMJDY)
- Statements 1, 2 and 3 are correct: Pradhan Mantri Jan-Dhan Yojana (PMJDY) is National Mission for Financial Inclusion to ensure access to financial services, namely, a basic savings & deposit accounts, remittance, credit, insurance, pension in an affordable manner. Following benefits are available under the scheme:
- One basic savings bank account is opened for unbanked person.
- There is no requirement to maintain any minimum balance in PMJDY accounts.
- Interest is earned on the deposit in PMJDY accounts.
- Rupay Debit card is provided to PMJDY account holder.
- Accident Insurance Cover of Rs.1 lakh is available with RuPay card issued to the PMJDY account holders.
- An overdraft (OD) facility up to Rs. 10,000 to eligible account holders is available.
- PMJDY accounts are eligible for Direct Benefit Transfer (DBT), Pradhan Mantri Jeevan Jyoti Bima Yojana (PMJJBY), Pradhan Mantri Suraksha Bima Yojana (PMSBY), Atal Pension Yojana (APY), Micro Units Development & Refinance Agency Bank (MUDRA) scheme.
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Question 3 of 5
3. Question
1 pointsConsider the following statements:
Statement-I:
A number of Fixed dose combination (FDC) drugs (medicines that have more than one active ingredient) have been banned by the central government of India.
Statement-II
FDCs reduce the number of pills the patient needs to take each day, and help improve adherence to the treatment.
Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements?
Correct
Answer: B
Explanation:
- Statement I is correct: FDCs are medicines that have more than one active ingredient — chemical compounds in medicines that have an effect on the body — in a single pill, capsule, or shot. The government has banned 156 fixed-dose combination (FDC) drugs, including popular medicines such as Cheston Cold and Foracet, used for cold and fever and pain respectively. These are banned under Section 26 A of the Drugs and Cosmetics Act of 1940 by the Union Health Ministry.
- Statement II is correct: FDC’s are useful for patients with conditions like Tuberculosis and Diabetes for which they need to take multiple medicines regularly. FDCs reduce the number of pills the patient needs to take each day, and help improve adherence to the treatment. They minimise pill burden and are cost effective.
Statement-II is not the correct explanation for Statement-I: Sometimes, however, an FDC could mean that a patient ends up taking a drug that they may not need. They can also lead to antimicrobial drug resistance. The banning has been in line with the government’s effort to weed out irrational medicine combinations that have entered the market over the years. The new drugs and clinical trial rules of 2019 make it clear that fixed dose combinations are to be considered as new drugs, and as such have to be approved by the central drug regulator.This is the correct explanation for statement I.
Incorrect
Answer: B
Explanation:
- Statement I is correct: FDCs are medicines that have more than one active ingredient — chemical compounds in medicines that have an effect on the body — in a single pill, capsule, or shot. The government has banned 156 fixed-dose combination (FDC) drugs, including popular medicines such as Cheston Cold and Foracet, used for cold and fever and pain respectively. These are banned under Section 26 A of the Drugs and Cosmetics Act of 1940 by the Union Health Ministry.
- Statement II is correct: FDC’s are useful for patients with conditions like Tuberculosis and Diabetes for which they need to take multiple medicines regularly. FDCs reduce the number of pills the patient needs to take each day, and help improve adherence to the treatment. They minimise pill burden and are cost effective.
Statement-II is not the correct explanation for Statement-I: Sometimes, however, an FDC could mean that a patient ends up taking a drug that they may not need. They can also lead to antimicrobial drug resistance. The banning has been in line with the government’s effort to weed out irrational medicine combinations that have entered the market over the years. The new drugs and clinical trial rules of 2019 make it clear that fixed dose combinations are to be considered as new drugs, and as such have to be approved by the central drug regulator.This is the correct explanation for statement I.
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Question 4 of 5
4. Question
1 pointsWith respect to the net borrowing ceiling for states, consider the following statements:
- Article 293 of the Indian constitution allows the states to borrow within and outside India upon the security of the Consolidated Fund of India.
- States cannot raise any loan without the consent of the Centre in case of an outstanding debt.
- States are allocated extra borrowing capacity as a performance-based incentive for power sector reforms.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Correct
Answer: B
Explanation:
- Statement 1 is incorrect: Article 293 gives power to states to borrow within India (not abroad) upon the security of the Consolidated Fund of the State. Thus, States can borrow within India using the security of their Consolidated Fund of State, but only within limits set by the state legislature.The Government of India can guarantee loans raised by states, but only within limits set by Parliament.
- Statement 2 is correct: States need the consent of the Government of India to raise loans, and the Government of India can impose conditions on that consent. This includes loans made by the Government of India or its predecessor government, or loans guaranteed by the Government of India or its predecessor government. States cannot raise any loan without the consent of the Centre in case of an outstanding debt.
Statement 3 is correct: The normal net borrowing ceiling for states is fixed at 3 % of the Gross State Domestic Product (GSDP). For FY24, this is equivalent to Rs 8,59,988 crore as recommended by the 15th Finance Commission. States are allocated an extra 5 % of GSDP borrowing capacity as a performance-based incentive for power sector reforms. Under this, States are eligible to borrow Rs 1.43 lakh crore on the recommendation of the power ministry for FY24.
Incorrect
Answer: B
Explanation:
- Statement 1 is incorrect: Article 293 gives power to states to borrow within India (not abroad) upon the security of the Consolidated Fund of the State. Thus, States can borrow within India using the security of their Consolidated Fund of State, but only within limits set by the state legislature.The Government of India can guarantee loans raised by states, but only within limits set by Parliament.
- Statement 2 is correct: States need the consent of the Government of India to raise loans, and the Government of India can impose conditions on that consent. This includes loans made by the Government of India or its predecessor government, or loans guaranteed by the Government of India or its predecessor government. States cannot raise any loan without the consent of the Centre in case of an outstanding debt.
Statement 3 is correct: The normal net borrowing ceiling for states is fixed at 3 % of the Gross State Domestic Product (GSDP). For FY24, this is equivalent to Rs 8,59,988 crore as recommended by the 15th Finance Commission. States are allocated an extra 5 % of GSDP borrowing capacity as a performance-based incentive for power sector reforms. Under this, States are eligible to borrow Rs 1.43 lakh crore on the recommendation of the power ministry for FY24.
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Question 5 of 5
5. Question
1 pointsConsider the following statements with respect to the Preventive detention laws in India:
- The Constitution of India lays down the procedure for preventive detention.
- The Constitution of India allows for the detention of individuals without a trial in certain circumstances.
- The Parliament has the exclusive power to make a law with respect to preventive detention.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Correct
Answer: A
Explanation:
- Statement 1 is correct: Article 22 of the Indian Constitution provides for the protection of the life and personal liberty of individuals and lays down the procedure for preventive detention. According to this article, no person can be detained without being informed of the grounds for such detention, and no person can be detained for more than three months without a judicial review.
- Statement 2 is correct: Article 22(2) requires the state to provide for a judicial review of the detention within a period of five weeks from the date of detention unless the individual is otherwise released earlier. However, Article 22(3) allows for the detention of individuals without a trial in certain circumstances, such as when a state of emergency has been declared.
Statement 3 is incorrect: Under the 7th Schedule, this power has been divided between the Parliament and the state legislatures. Exclusive power of Parliament: To make a law of preventive detention for reasons connected with- Defence, Foreign Affairs and Security of India. Concurrent power: Both the Parliament as well as the state legislatures can concurrently make a law of preventive detention for reasons connected with- Security of a state, Maintenance of public order and Maintenance of supplies and services essential to the community.
Incorrect
Answer: A
Explanation:
- Statement 1 is correct: Article 22 of the Indian Constitution provides for the protection of the life and personal liberty of individuals and lays down the procedure for preventive detention. According to this article, no person can be detained without being informed of the grounds for such detention, and no person can be detained for more than three months without a judicial review.
- Statement 2 is correct: Article 22(2) requires the state to provide for a judicial review of the detention within a period of five weeks from the date of detention unless the individual is otherwise released earlier. However, Article 22(3) allows for the detention of individuals without a trial in certain circumstances, such as when a state of emergency has been declared.
Statement 3 is incorrect: Under the 7th Schedule, this power has been divided between the Parliament and the state legislatures. Exclusive power of Parliament: To make a law of preventive detention for reasons connected with- Defence, Foreign Affairs and Security of India. Concurrent power: Both the Parliament as well as the state legislatures can concurrently make a law of preventive detention for reasons connected with- Security of a state, Maintenance of public order and Maintenance of supplies and services essential to the community.
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