Daily Current Affairs for UPSC – 8 August 2023

Daily Current Affairs for UPSC 2023

Q) Which of the following statements is not correct about the System of Air Quality and Weather Forecasting and Research (SAFAR):

1. It provides real-time information on air quality.
2. It provides forecast for air quality information.
3. It covers major metropolitan cities in India, including Delhi.
4. It does not collect data on Volatile Organic Compound (VOC) levels in the atmosphere.

Daily Current Affairs for UPSC – 7 August April 2023

Explanation:

Delhi is one of the most polluted cities in the world. The problem has persisted for decades. In 2019, the average air quality index (AQI) in Delhi was 104, which is considered to be “poor”. In order to address the problem of air pollution in Delhi, the Ministry of Earth Sciences (MoES) had launched the System of Air Quality and Weather Forecasting and Research (SAFAR) in 2010.

• Option (4) is correct answer: SAFAR is a national initiative that provides real-time and forecast air quality information for major metropolitan cities in India, including Delhi. SAFAR uses a network of air quality monitoring stations to collect data on a variety of pollutants, including PM2.5, PM10, NO2, SO2, CO, and O3. The data from these stations is then used to generate air quality forecasts for the next 1-3 days.

Benefits of SAFAR:

• It provides real-time information on air quality, which can help people to make informed decisions about their health and activities. For example, if the AQI is high, people may choose to stay indoors or wear a mask when they go outside.
• It provides forecast air quality information, which can help people to plan ahead. For example, if the AQI is forecast to be high, people may choose to work from home or take public transportation instead of driving.
• It helps to raise awareness about air pollution and its impacts on health. This information can help people to demand action from the government to improve air quality in Delhi.

Q) Consider the following statements about Economic Community of West African States (ECOWAS):

1. It is a regional political and economic union of fifteen countries located in West Africa.
2. It was established in 1975, with the signing of the Treaty of Lagos.
3. It is considered one of the pillar regional blocs of the continent-wide African Economic Community

Which of the statements given above are correct?

1. 1 and 2 only
2. 1 and 3 only
3. 2 and 3 only
4. 1, 2 and 3

Explanation:

The West African regional organization ECOWAS announced that its leaders are scheduled to convene to address the situation in Niger.

• Statements 1, 2 and 3 are correct: Economic Community of West African States (ECOWAS) is a regional political and economic union of fifteen countries located in West Africa. It was established in 1975, with the signing of the Treaty of Lagos. The goal of ECOWAS is to achieve “collective self-sufficiency” for its member states by creating a single large trade bloc by building a full economic and trading union. It also serves as a peacekeeping force in the region. The vision of ECOWAS is creation of a borderless region where the population has access to its abundant resources and is able to exploit same through the creation of opportunities under a sustainable environment. It is considered one of the pillar regional blocs of the continent-wide African Economic Community (AEC). The ECOWAS Summit 2023 will be held in Abuja, on August 10, 2023.

Q) Consider the following statements about the Emblems and Names (Prevention of Improper Use) Act:

1. It was passed in 1976 to prevent the use of certain emblems and names by individuals and parties during political agitation against the Central Government.
2. It prohibits the improper usage of the official seal of the Government of India, or the World Health Organisation, or the United Nations Organisation.
3. The jurisdiction of the act extends to the whole of India and also applies to citizens of India outside India.

Which of the statements given above are correct?

1. 1 and 2 only
2. 1 and 3 only
3. 2 and 3 only
4. 1, 2 and 3

Explanation:

Delhi High Court has sought responses from the Centre, the Election Commission of India (ECI), and an alliance of 26 opposition parties in a public interest litigation (PIL) against these parties’ use of the acronym I.N.D.I.A. (Indian National Developmental Inclusive Alliance).

• Statement 1 is incorrect: The Emblems and Names (Prevention of Improper Use) Act was passed on March 1, 1950, to “prevent the improper use of certain emblems and names for professional and commercial purposes”. Regardless of any existing laws, individuals are not allowed to use or keep using, without prior permission from the Central Government or its authorized officer, any name or emblem listed in the Schedule or any imitation of it that looks similar. This applies to using them for trade, business, profession, patent titles, trademarks, or designs. The Central Government may specify certain cases and conditions where such usage is allowed.
• Statements 2 and 3 are correct: The Emblems and Names (Prevention of Improper Use) Act of 1950 prohibits the improper usage of the name, emblem, or official seal of the Government of India (GOI) or of any state, the World Health Organisation (WHO), or the United Nations Organisation (UNO). It extends to the whole of India and also applies to citizens of India outside India. Any person who contravenes the provisions of section 3 shall be punishable with a fine which may extend to 500 rupees.

Q) With reference to Amrit Bharat Stations Scheme, consider the following statement:

1. The scheme will subsume all previous redevelopment projects where work is yet to begin.
2. The NITI Aayog have been given the responsibility of selecting stations, which will then be approved by the Prime Minister’s Office.
3. The Scheme envisages high-cost redevelopment of stations with all the modern basic amenities and facilities for passengers.

How many of the statements given above are correct?

1. Only one
2. Only two
3. All three
4. None

Explanation:

The Prime Minister has laid the foundation stone for the redevelopment of 508 railway stations across the country virtually as part of Amrit Bharat Stations scheme.  Features of Amrit Bharat Stations Scheme include:

• Statement 1 is correct: The scheme will subsume all previous redevelopment projects where work is yet to begin.
• The scheme aims at preparation of Master Plans of the Railway stations and implementation of the Master Plan in phases to enhance the facilities including and beyond the Minimum Essential Amenities.
• However, plans and consequent budgets will only be approved on the basis of factors such as footfall and inputs from stakeholders.
• Statement 2 is incorrect: Zonal railways have been given the responsibility of selecting stations, which will then be approved by a committee of senior railway officials.
• Statement 3 is incorrect: The model envisages low-cost redevelopment of stations which can be executed timely. The scheme shall cater for introduction of new amenities as well as upgradation and replacement of existing amenities.

Q) With respect to Sugar production in India, consider the following statements:

1. Statement – I : India became the world’s top sugar producer in 2021-2022, surpassing Brazil, resulting high exports of Sugar.
2. Statement – II : The sugar surplus in India and high exports are a result of the fair and remunerative price (FRP) scheme and favourable State government subsidies.

Which one of the following is correct in respect to the above statements?

1. Both Statement – I and Statement – II are correct and Statement – II is the correct explanation for Statement – I
2. Both Statement – I and Statement – II are correct and Statement – II is not the correct explanation for Statement – I
3. Statement – I is correct but Statement – II is incorrect
4. Statement – I is incorrect but Statement – II is correct

Explanation:

• Statement 1 is correct: India became the world’s top sugar producer in 2021-2022, surpassing Brazil with a record of 359 lakh tonnes. However, the extensive use of resources in sugar production is depleting rapidly, leading to a potential crisis in the future. Also, as India’s top sugarcane-growing states rely heavily on groundwater for irrigation, it has led to concerns over groundwater depletion and associated challenges.
• Statement 2 is correct: The sugar surplus and high exports in recent years are a result of policies favouring sugarcane cultivation, such as the fair and remunerative price (FRP) scheme and State government subsidies. The Central government offers a minimum price guarantee to sugar mills for sugarcane, known as the Fair and Remunerative Price (FRP). This scheme ensures that sugarcane farmers receive fair profits for their crop, encouraging them to cultivate more sugarcane. Many state governments in India provide heavy subsidies to incentivize sugarcane cultivation. These subsidies can include financial support, agricultural inputs etc that make sugarcane farming more attractive to farmers.
• Hence Statement II is correct explanation for Statement I

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