Daily Current Affairs for UPSC – 5 July 2023

Daily Current Affairs for UPSC 2023

Q) Which one of the following statements is not correct about ‘Leptospirosis’?

1. It is a disease caused by a bacterium.
2. Both domestic and wild animals are the carriers of the disease.
3. It is not contagious and usually does not transmit to humans.
4. It can possibly cause reproductive failure in cattle.

Daily Current Affairs for UPSC – 4 July April 2023

Explanation:

• Option (1) is correct: In India, thousands of people are affected by leptospirosis every year. Leptospirosis disease is caused by a bacterium called Leptospira interrogans, or leptospira. Leptospirosis has been called “ilijwara” in Kannada and “eli pani” in Malayalam, both meaning “rat fever”.
• Option (2) is correct: The carriers of the disease can be either wild or domestic animals, including rodents, cattle, pigs, and dogs. The cycle of disease transmission begins with the shedding of leptospira, usually in the urine of infected animals. Infected animals can continue to excrete the bacteria into their surroundings for a few months, but sometimes up to several years.
• Option (3) is incorrect: It is a contagious disease in animals but is occasionally transmitted to humans in certain environmental conditions. Seasonal patterns such as the onset of the monsoon can also potentially facilitate the disease’s incidence and transmission. The incidence of the disease is also linked to extreme weather events like floods and hurricanes, when people are exposed to contaminated water. Poor waste management, a high density of stray animals, faulty drainage systems, and unhygienic sanitation facilities are major drivers of the disease in urban areas.
• Option (4) is correct:In cattle and pigs, the disease can potentially cause reproductive failure, stillbirths, and weak calves or piglets. Dogs experience a range of symptoms, including fever, jaundice, vomiting, diarrhoea, renal failure, and even death.

Q) Consider the following statements about the Anti-Defection Law:

1. The Anti-Defection Law is included in the Eleventh Schedule of the Indian Constitution.
2. The Speaker of the Lok Sabha decides on the disqualification of the members under the anti-defection law.
3. If one-third of a political party’s legislators choose to join another party, it would not be regarded as a defection.

How many of the statements given above is/are correct?

1. Only one
2. Only two
3. All three
4. None

Explanation:

• Statement 1 is incorrect: The Anti-Defection Law in India refers to a set of constitutional provisions enacted to prevent political defections by elected representatives. The law aims to maintain stability in the democratic system by discouraging elected officials from switching parties after being elected. It was first introduced through the 52nd Amendment Act of 1985 and is enshrined in the Tenth Schedule of the Indian Constitution.
• Statement 2 is correct: The Chairman or the Speaker of the House has been conferred with the power to take the decision to disqualify a member, and his/her decision is final. All proceedings in relation to disqualification under this Schedule are considered to be proceedings in Parliament or the Legislature of a state as is the case. Any question regarding disqualification arising out of defection is to be decided by the presiding officer of the House. However, there is no time limit as per the law within which the Presiding Officers should decide on a plea for disqualification.
• Statement 3 is incorrect: In the situation where two-thirds of the legislators of a political party decide to merge into another party, neither the members who decide to join nor the ones who stay with the original party will face disqualification.  Originally, the Act provided that the presiding officer’s decision was final and could not be questioned in any court of law. But, in Kihoto Hollohan case (1992), the Supreme Court declared this provision as unconstitutional.

Q) With reference to Foreign Contribution Regulation Act (FCRA), consider the following statements:

1. In order to receive foreign donations, the FCRA registration needs to be renewed annually.
2. An NGO cannot re-register for three years once its FCRA registration is cancelled.
3. All orders of the government regarding cancellation of registration can be challenged in the High Court.

How many of the statements given above is/are correct?

1. Only one
2. Only two
3. All three
4. None

Explanation:

• Statement 1 is incorrect: Foreign Contribution Regulation (FCRA) Act was enacted during the Emergency in 1976 amid apprehensions that foreign powers were interfering in India’s affairs by pumping money into the country through independent organisations. It aims to regulate foreign donations to individuals and associations so that they function in a manner consistent with the values of a sovereign democratic republic. Once granted, FCRA registration is valid for five years. NGOs are expected to apply for renewal within six months of the date of expiry of registration.
• Statements 2 and 3 are correct: Registration can be cancelled if an inquiry finds a false statement in the application. Once the registration of an NGO is cancelled, it is not eligible for re-registration for three years. The MHA also has the power to suspend an NGO’s registration for 180 days pending inquiry and can freeze its funds. All orders of the government can be challenged in the High Court. The Ministry of Home Affairs had suspended the Foreign Contribution Regulation Act licence of the Centre for Policy Research (CPR) for 180 days. Now the Income Tax Department has cancelled the tax exemption status of the CPR.

Q) Which of the following are potential impacts of declining ice cover in the Arctic region?

1. Strengthening of the polar jet streams
2. Release of methane gas from permafrost regions
3. Increased heat waves and the unpredictability of weather

Select the correct answer using the code given below:

1. 1, 2 and 3
2. 2 only
3. 1 only
4. 2 and 3 only

Explanation:

• Option (4) is correct: According to a new study published in the journal Nature Communications, Arctic could get its first summer free of sea-ice by as early as the 2030s. Satellites monitoring the Arctic have shown the rate of loss to be 13% every year. Various impacts of decline in Arctic Sea Ice are:
• Temperatures: It could lead to a weakening of the polar jet streams, which are currents of air that form when warm and cold air meet. This weakening has been linked to rising temperatures and heatwaves in Europe as well as unseasonal showers in northwest India.
• Food: Polar vortexes, increased heat waves, and unpredictability of weather caused by ice loss are already causing significant damage to crops on which global food systems depend.
• Wildlife: When there’s less sea ice, animals that depend on it for survival must adapt or perish. Loss of ice and melting permafrost spells trouble for polar bears, walruses, arctic foxes, snowy owls, reindeer, and many other species.
• Permafrost: Arctic ice and permafrost—ground that is permanently frozen—store large amounts of methane, a greenhouse gas that contributes to climate change. When it thaws, that methane is released, increasing the rate of warming. This causes more ice and permafrost to thaw or melt, releasing more methane, causing more melting. As we lose more ice more quickly and see more rapid permafrost melt, we will start seeing the worst climate change predictions come true.
• Mineral Resources and Hydrocarbons: Arctic region has rich deposits of coal, gypsum and diamonds and also substantial reserves of zinc, lead, placer gold and quartz. The Arctic contains a wealth of unexplored hydrocarbon resources amounting to 30% of the world’s undiscovered natural gas.
• Scientific Exploration: The Arctic meltdown is helping the scientific community to better understand the glacial melt in the Himalayas, which has often been referred to as the ‘third pole’ and has the largest freshwater reserves after the North and South poles.

Q) Consider the following statements about National Investigation Agency (NIA):

1. It is a central agency which works under the Union Ministry of Home Affairs.
2. It is mandated to investigate all the offences affecting India’s friendly relations with foreign states.
3. The NIA’s Jurisdiction extends to the whole of India as well as to Indian citizens outside the country.

How many of the statements given above is/are correct?

1. Only one
2. Only two
3. All three
4. None

Explanation:

• Statement 1 is correct: National Investigation Agency (NIA) is the Central Counter Terrorism Law Enforcement Agency of India. In the wake of the 26/11 Mumbai terror attack in 2008, the then Government decided to establish the NIA. It works under the Union Ministry of Home Affairs.
• Statement 2 is correct: NIA is mandated to investigate all the offences affecting the:
• Sovereignty, security and integrity of India,
• Friendly relations with foreign states,
• The offences under the statutory laws enacted to implement international treaties, agreements, conventions and resolutions of the United Nations, its agencies and other international organisations.
• These include terror acts and their possible links with crimes like smuggling of arms, drugs and fake Indian currency and infiltration from across the borders.
• Statement 3 is correct: The law under which the NIA agency operates extends to the whole of India and also applies to:
• Indian citizens outside the country
• Persons in the service of the government wherever they are posted.
• Persons on ships and aircraft registered in India wherever they may be.
• Persons who commit a scheduled offencebeyond Indiaagainst the Indian citizen or affecting the interest of India.

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