Daily Current Affairs for UPSC – 29 December 2022

Daily Current Affairs for UPSC 2022

Q) Which one of the following statements is correct about Delimitation Commission?

1. It is appointed by central government on recommendation of the Chief Justice of India.
2. The Parliament cannot modify the orders of the delimitation commission.
3. The orders of the delimitation commission can be questioned before the Supreme Court.
4. The delimitation commission has been established five times, since India’s independence.

Daily Current Affairs for UPSC – 28 December 2022

Explanation:

• Option (2) is correct: The Delimitation Commission in India is a high-power body whose orders have the force of law. The Delimitation Commission is appointed by the President of India includes following members: Retired Supreme Court judge; Chief Election Commissioner; Respective State Election Commissioners. It function is to determine the number and boundaries of constituencies to make population of all constituencies nearly equal; to identify seats reserved for Scheduled Castes and Scheduled Tribes, wherever their population is relatively large. In case of difference of opinion among members of the Commission, the will of majority prevails. The Constitution mandates that the Commission’s orders are final and cannot be questioned before any court as it would hold up an election indefinitely. The copies of its orders are laid before the House of the People and the State Legislative Assembly concerned, but no modifications are permissible therein by them. In the history of the Indian republic, Delimitation Commissions have been set up four times since independence-1952, 1963, 1973 and 2002 under the Acts of 1952, 1962, 1972 and 2002. There was no delimitation after the 1981, 1991 and 2001 Censuses. However, the 2002 Act did not make any changes in total Lok Sabha seats or their apportionment between various states.

Q) Consider the following statements about Social Stock Exchange (SSE):

1. Religious organizations are not allowed to raise funds from SSE.
2. Both the private and non-profit sectors can raise funds through the exchange.
3. An entity must have a minimum issue size of Rs 1 crore to raise funds from SSE.
4. The not-for-profit organizations should have been registered for at least seven years.

Which of the statements given above are correct?

1. 1, 2 and 3 only
2. 2 and 4 only
3. 1 and 3 only
4. 1, 2, 3 and 4

Explanation:

• Statement 1 and 2 are correct: Social Stock Exchange (SSE) will allow the private and non-profit sectors in raising funds. Social enterprises eligible to participate in the SSE will be Not-for-Profit organisations (NPOs) and for-profit social enterprises. Corporate foundations, political or religious organisations or activities, professional or trade associations, infrastructure companies, and housing companies will not be eligible to be identified as social enterprises, to raise funds from SSE. The SSE aims to unlock large pools of social capital, and encourage blended finance structures, so that conventional capital can partner with social capital to address the urgent challenges of COVID-19.
• Statement 3 is correct: A NPO must have spent at least Rs 50 lakh annually in the past financial year. A NPO should have received a funding of at least Rs 10 lakh in the past financial year. A NPO should have minimum issue size of Rs 1 crore and a minimum application size for subscription of Rs 2 lakh to raise funds from SSE.
• Statement 4 is incorrect: SEBI said that a NPO needs to be registered as a charitable trust and should be registered for at least three years. NPOs need to make disclosure of financial statements for last three financial years, details of past social impact and risks that they see to its work and how it proposes to mitigate these. Instruments NPOs can offer on SSEs are zero-coupon-zero-principal bonds, social venture funds, and mutual funds, providing a wide option to “donor” investors looking to invest with an objective to create a social impact.

Q) With reference to cervical cancer, consider the following statements:

1. It is caused by an infection with the human immunodeficiency virus.
2. India accounts for the highest number of cervical cancer cases in Asia.
3. There is currently no vaccine to prevent cervical cancer.

Which of the statements given above is/are not correct?

1. 1 and 2 only
2. 2 only
3. 1 and 3 only
4. 2 and 3 only

Explanation:

• Statement 1 is incorrect: Cervical cancer is caused by infection with the Human Papilloma Virus (HPV). Cervical cancer is the second most common cancer among women in India, and the cause of a large number of deaths annually. It can be prevented and cured if it is detected early and managed effectively.
• Statement 2 is correct: According to a study, India accounts for the highest number of cervical cancer cases in Asia, followed by China. More than 58% of all cervical cancer cases and deaths globally were estimated in Asia with India accounting for 21% of cases and 23% of deaths, followed by China (18% and 17%). In India, the incidence rate of cervical cancer is 18 per 1,00,000 women, and based on WHO estimates in 2019, over 45,000 women died of the disease. The WHO has specified that countries must reach and maintain an incidence rate of less than 4 new cases per 1,00,000 women a year by 2030. To achieve this goal, one of the most important initiatives is that 90% of girls will have to be vaccinated with the HPV vaccine by the age of 15.
• Statement 3 is incorrect: There are vaccines to protect against cervical cancer caused by the Human Papilloma Virus (HPV). Serum Institute of India has partnered with DBT’s Biotechnology Industry Research Assistance Council (BIRAC), and the Bill and Melinda Gates Foundation to develop the CERVAVAC vaccine for cervical cancer. The vaccine is effective against at least four variants of cancer-causing Human Papilloma Virus (HPV).

Q) Consider the following statements about the ‘Dhanu Yatra’:

1. It is the largest open-air theatre festival celebrated in the state of Jharkhand.
2. It is performed each year following paddy harvesting.
3. The main figure of the celebration is King Kansa.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

1. 1 only
2. 1 and 2 only
3. 2 and 3 only
4. 1, 2 and 3

Explanation:

• Statement 1 is incorrect: The ‘Dhanu Yatra’ festival, the largest open-air theatre festival began at Bargarh in Odisha. Dhanu Yatra is an eleven day long annual open-air theatre festival stretching more than 5 squares Km and comprising a village and a town in between. Virtually every villager has a role to play in the theatre festival and for the entire eleven days.
• Statement 2 is correct: Dhanu Yatra was started after the harvesting season of the year 1947-48, immediately after independence of India as a reflection of joyous atmosphere in the society. Since then it is performed every year at the end of the harvesting of paddy.
• Statement 3 is correct: King Kansa is the central attraction of the Dhanu Yatra and people of Bargarh oblige what King Kansa orders during the course of the festival. The plays in the festival start with the dethroning of Emperor Ugrasen of Mathura by angry Kansa over his sister Devaki’s marriage with Vasudev. The festival concludes with the death of demon king Kansa and restoration of the throne to Ugrasen. During the festival, Bargarh town and the adjacent areas becomes the kingdom of Kansa-‘The Mathura Nagari’. The river Jeera flowing near Bargarh becomes river Jamuna and ‘Ambapali’ on the other side of the river becomes ‘Gopapura’.

Q) Which of the following statements is/are correct about disputes resolution between states?

1. The Supreme Court has original jurisdiction to resolve inter-state water disputes.
2. The Inter-state Council is set up by the President for resolution of disputes between states.

Select the correct answer using the code given below:

1. 1 only
2. 2 only
3. Both 1 and 2
4. Neither 1 nor 2

Explanation:

• Statement 1 is incorrect: The Supreme Court in its original jurisdiction (Article 131 of the Constitution) decides disputes between states. The original jurisdiction of the Supreme Court does not extend to inter-state water disputes; a dispute arising out of any pre-Constitution treaty, agreement, covenant, engagement, sanad or other similar instrument; a dispute arising out of any treaty, agreement, etc., which specifically provides that the said jurisdiction does not extent to such a dispute.
• Statement 2 is correct: Article 263 of the Constitution gives powers to the President to set up an Inter-state Council for resolution of disputes between states. The Council is envisaged as a forum for discussion between the states and the Centre. In 1988, the Sarkaria Commission suggested that the Council should exist as a permanent body, and in 1990 it came into existence through a Presidential Order.

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