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Daily Current Affairs for UPSC – 18 July 2023

Daily Current Affairs for UPSC 2023

Q) Which one of the following statements is not correct about Rajya Sabha?

  1. One-third of members retire after every second year
  2. A nominated member can join party within six months of taking seat
  3. The members of the Rajya Sabha can get re-elected.
  4. The NOTA option is also available in Rajya Sabha elections

Daily Current Affairs for UPSC – 17 July April 2023

Explanation:

  • Option (1) and (3) are correct: The Rajya Sabha represents the States of India. The Rajya Sabha currently has 245 members, including 233 elected members and 12 nominated. As per the constitutional limit, the Upper House strength cannot exceed 250. The Vice-President is the chairperson of the Rajya Sabha. Rajya Sabha is a permanent House and cannot be dissolved. Rajya Sabha is an indirectly elected body. To ensure continuity, one-third of its members retire after every second year, under Article 83(1) of the Constitution, and “biennial elections” are held to fill these vacancies. Vacancies arising due to resignation, death or disqualification are filled up through bypolls, and those elected serve out the remainder of their predecessors’ term. Members of the Rajya Sabha are elected for a term of six years. They can get re-elected.
  • Option (2) is correct: Out of the 245 members, 12 are nominated by the President. Under Article 80(3), the 12 nominated members should have special knowledge or practical experience in matters like literature, science, art etc. A nominated member may join a party within six months of taking a seat.
  • Option (4) is incorrect: In 2018, the Supreme Court of India struck down the provision of using the NOTA button for Rajya Sabha, holding that the ‘none of the above’ option is only for general elections held on the basis of universal adult suffrage, and cannot be applied to indirect elections based on proportional representation.

Q) Consider the following statements about ‘National Multidimensional Poverty Index (MPI) 2023’:

  1. There has been a decline of approximately 10 percent in the number of multidimensional poor in the last seven years.
  2. While Bihar registered the largest decline in the number of poor, Uttar Pradesh witnessed the fastest reduction in MPI value in absolute terms.
  3. Multidimensional poverty in urban areas has declined more rapidly than in rural areas.

How many of the statements given above are correct?

  1. Only one
  2. Only two
  3. All three
  4. None

Explanation:

  • Statement 1 is correct: India has registered a significant decline in the number of multidimensional poor, according to the ‘National Multidimensional Poverty Index 2023’, released by the NITI Aayog. India has registered a significant decline of 9.89 percentage points in the number of multidimensional poor, from 24.85% in 2015-16 to 14.96% in 2019-2021. The report claims that about 13.5 crore people came out of multidimensional poverty during the period from 2015-16 to 2019-21. According to the report, between 2015-16 and 2019-21, the MPI value has nearly halved from 0.117 to 0.066 and the intensity of poverty has reduced from 47% to 44%.
  • Statement 2 is incorrect: Bihar, Jharkhand, Meghalaya, Uttar Pradesh and Madhya Pradesh top the chart where the percentage of total population who are multidimensional poor is high. Uttar Pradesh registered the largest decline in number of poor with 3.43 crore people escaping multidimensional poverty. Bihar saw the fastest reduction in MPI value in absolute terms with the proportion of multidimensional poor reducing from 51.89% to 33.76% in 2019-21.
  • Statement 3 is incorrect: The report said rural areas witnessed the fastest decline in poverty from 32.59% to 19.28%, primarily due to decrease in the number of multi-dimensionally poor in States such as Bihar, Uttar Pradesh, Madhya Pradesh, Odisha, and Rajasthan where percentage of rural population is high compared to urban population. Multidimensional poverty in urban areas, during the same period, saw a decrease from 8.65% to 5.27%.

Q) Consider the following statements:

  1. It is located in the eastern Satpura hill range.
  2. Its reference is also found in the Shiva Sanhita Puran.
  3. The density of the tiger population here is the highest known in India.
  4. Sal forest and bamboo are the major vegetation present here.

Which one of the following tiger reserve is best described in the statements given above?

  1. Satkosia Tiger Reserve
  2. Palamau Tiger Reserve
  3. Sanjay Dubri Tiger Reserve
  4. Bandhavgarh Tiger Reserve

Explanation:

  • Option (4) is correct: Bandhavgarh was declared a national park in 1968 and then became Tiger Reserve in 1993. Mythologically the name “Bandhavgarh” means (Bandhav = Brother and garh = Fort). This fort was built and given to brother Lakshman by Lord Rama, to keep a watch on lanka and hence it acquired the name. Reference to this is also found in the Narad Panch Ratna and Shiva Sanhita Puran. It is known for the Royal Bengal Tigers. The density of the tiger population at Bandhavgarh is the highest known in India as well as in the world. The vegetation of Bandhavgarh is specially filled with Sal forest in the valleys, and Bamboo stretches on the lower slopes of the region. Some of the most famous floral species include Saj (Terminaliatomentosa), Dhaora (Anogeissus latifolia), Tendu, Arjun (Terminalia arjuna), Amla (Emblica officinalis), Palas (Butea monosperma) etc. The important prey species consists of chital, sambhar, barking deer, nilgai, chinkara, wild pig, chowsingha, langur and rhesus macaque. Dependent upon them are the major predators like tiger, leopard, wild dog, wolf and jackal.

An injured tigress recently died at Bandhavgarh Tiger Reserve (BTR) in Madhya Pradesh’s Umaria district. Bandhavgarh Tiger Reserve (BTR) is located in the eastern Satpura hill range of Umaria and katni districts.

Q) With reference to Biodynamic farming, consider the following statements:

  1. The main aim of this type of farming is to replenish the soil.
  2. Biodynamic farming minimizes the usage of chemical soil treatments.
  3. It helps with nutrient cycling by integrating livestock into the farming system.

How many of the statements given above are correct?

  1. Only one
  2. Only two
  3. All three
  4. None

Explanation:

  • Statement 1 is correct: Biodynamic farming is an organic approach to agriculture that focuses on preserving the interrelationships between soil, plants, animals, and the surrounding ecosystem. It was developed by philosopher Rudolf Steiner in the 1920s as a response to concerns about soil degradation and declining crop and livestock health. Biodynamic farming takes a spiritual-ethical-ecological approach to agriculture, emphasizing the interconnectedness of all elements within the farming system. The aim is to heal and replenish the soil, maintaining its fertility and vitality.
  • Statement 2 is correct: Biodynamic farming minimizes the use of chemical soil treatments and off-farm inputs. Instead, farmers rely on green manure, biodynamic preparations (such as herbal and mineral preparations), and practices like livestock integration for soil fertility.
  • Statement 3 is correct: Biodynamic farms often integrate livestock into the farming system, allowing for nutrient cycling and promoting a balanced ecosystem. Biodynamically grown produce is organic, free from chemical residues, and often considered to be of higher quality, taste, and nutritional value. Biodynamic farming helps preserve soil health, biodiversity, and natural habitats. It reduces pollution of soil and waterways, promotes energy efficiency, and can withstand environmental challenges more effectively.

Q) Consider the following statements about Black Sea Grain Initiative:

  1. Foodgrain exports from Ukraine have been permitted under this initiative.
  2. All commercial ships are required to register directly with the Joint Coordination Centre for safe passage under the initiative.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

  1. 1 only
  2. 2 only
  3. Both 1 and 2
  4. Neither 1 nor 2

Explanation:

  • Statement 1 is correct: Russia has halted the Black Sea Grain Initiative that allowed the export of Ukrainian grain to other countries. Ukraine is a major contributor to the UN’s food aid programmes. Black Sea Grain Initiative is aimed to calm markets by ensuring an adequate supply of grains, thereby limiting food price inflation. On July 22, 2022, the UN and Turkey got Russia to agree to the Black Sea Grain Initiative. Under the deal, the cargo ships would be allowed to travel from and to three Ukrainian ports of Odesa, Chornomorsk and Pivdennyi (Yuzhny), after inspection that they weren’t carrying arms. The safe passage in the Black Sea was 310 nautical miles long and three nautical miles wide.
  • Statement 2 is correct: The deal put in place a Joint Coordination Centre (JCC), comprising senior representatives from Russia, Turkey, Ukraine and the UN for oversight and coordination. All commercial ships are required to register directly with the JCC to ensure appropriate monitoring, inspection and safe passage. Inbound and outbound ships (to the designated corridor) transit as per a schedule accorded by the JCC post-inspection. This is done so as to ensure there is no unauthorised cargo or personnel onboard.

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Daily Current Affairs for UPSC – 18 July 2023_4.1