Daily Current Affairs for UPSC

Daily Current Affairs for UPSC – 12 August 2023

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Daily Current Affairs for UPSC 2023

Q) Which of the following statements is correct with reference to ‘No Confidence Motion’?

The Constitution of India does not mention about it.
It can only be moved in the Lok Sabha.
It was moved first time during the third Lok Sabha in 1963
No discussion takes place on it after its introduction in the Lok Sabha

Daily Current Affairs for UPSC – 11 August April 2023

Explanation:

Option (4) is correct: In the Indian parliamentary system, a motion of no-confidence plays a crucial role in assessing the government’s strength and accountability. In a parliamentary democracy, a government can be in power only if it commands a majority in the directly elected House.
Article 75(3) of our Constitution embodies this rule by specifying that the Council of Ministers are collectively responsible to the Lok Sabha.
But the Constitution of India does not mention about either a Confidence or a No Confidence Motion.
For testing this collective responsibility, the rules of Lok Sabha provide a particular mechanism – a motion of no-confidence.
Any Lok Sabha MP, who can garner the support of 50 colleagues, can, at any point of time, introduce a motion of no-confidence against the Council of Ministers.
Thereafter, a discussion on the motion takes place.
MPs who support the motion highlight the government’s shortcomings, and the Treasury Benches respond to the issues they raise.
Finally, a vote takes place – in case the motion carries, the government is bound to vacate the office.
A no confidence motion can only be moved in the Lok Sabha.

It was during the third Lok Sabha in 1963 that the first motion of no confidence was moved by Acharya J B Kripalani against the government headed by Prime Minister Jawaharlal Nehru.

Q) Consider the following statements about the Multilateral Development Banks (MDBs):

MDBs originated in the aftermath of World War I to rebuild war-ravaged nations.
While commercial banks seek to make profits on loans, the goal of MDBs is to grant low-cost loans to improve the economic conditions of developing nations.
The World Bank, a well-known MDBs, was established in 1944 to help rebuild Europe and Japan after World War II.

Which of the following statements given above are correct?

1 and 2 only
1 and 3 only
2 and 3 only
1, 2 and 3

Explanation:

While addressing a G-20 event in Mumbai, the finance minister of India stated that the main focus of India’s G-20 Presidency in 2023 has been to strengthen Multilateral Development Banks (MDBs) in order to address shared global challenges.

Statements 1 is incorrect but Statement 2 is correct: A multilateral development bank (MDB) is an international financial institution chartered by two or more countries for the purpose of encouraging economic development in poorer nations. MDBs originated in the aftermath of World War II to rebuild war-ravaged nations and stabilize the global financial system. While commercial banks seek to make profits on loans and other financial services, the goal of MDBs is to issue grants and low-cost loans to improve the economic conditions of impoverished or developing nations.
Statements 3 is correct: The World Bank, a well-known MDB, was established in 1944 to help rebuild Europe and Japan after World War II. Its official name was the International Bank for Reconstruction and Development (IBRD). When it first began operations in 1946, it had 38 members. Today, most of the countries in the world are members. Some other well know MDBs are, Inter-American Development Bank (IDB), Asian Development Bank (ADB), African Development Bank, European Bank for Reconstruction and Development, etc.

Q) With reference to ‘online gaming’, consider the following statements:

The Parliament has approved levy of 28 per cent GST on full face value of entry level bets in online gaming, casinos and horse racing.
The Department of Sports under the Ministry of Youth Affairs & Sports serve as the nodal ministry for the regulation of online gaming, including the e-sports category.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

1 only
2 only
Both 1 and 2
Neither 1 nor 2

Explanation:

The term “online gaming” refers to games that can only be played with an internet connection. This is a part of the sunrise industry with a growing demand for game access.

Statement 1 is correct: Parliament cleared amendments to the Goods and Services Tax (GST) laws to facilitate the levy of 28% GST on the face value of all bets made in casinos, horse-racing and online gaming. GST again will be reviewed after six months from implementation. The uniform levy of 28 per cent tax will be applicable on
the face value of the chips purchased in the case of casinos.
the full value of the bets placed with bookmaker/totalisator in the case of horse racing, and
the full value of the bets placed in case of online gaming.

Now online gaming and horse racing will be included in Schedule-III of the Central GST Act 2017, deeming them as taxable actionable claims.

Statement 2 is incorrect: India’s gaming market is poised for explosive growth, with projections indicating that it will expand from $2.8 billion in 2022 to a staggering $5 billion by 2025. This represents a compounded annual growth rate (CAGR) of 28-30 percent. The number of gamers in the country is also expected to surge, increasing from 420 million in 2022 to reach 500 million by 2025. In terms of regulation, the Ministry of Electronics and Information Technology (MeitY) may serve as the nodal ministry for online gaming, with the exception of e-sports, which falls under the jurisdiction of the Department of Sports within the Ministry of Youth Affairs & Sports.

Q) Consider the following statements about NavIC Navigation System:

It is an independent stand-alone navigation satellite system developed by the ISRO.
It consists of a constellation of eight satellites located in a low earth orbit.
The primary service area of NavIC extends up to 1500 kms from the boundaries of Indian landmass.

Which of the following statements given above are correct?

1 and 2 only
1 and 3 only
2 and 3 only
1, 2 and 3

Explanation:

The Department of Space (DoS) stated that the Navigation with Indian Constellation or NavIC, will soon be integrated into Aadhaar enrolment devices across the country.

Statement 1 and 3 are correct but Statement 2 is incorrect: The Indian Regional Navigation Satellite System (IRNSS), with an operational name of NavIC, is an independent stand-alone navigation satellite system developed by the ISRO. NavIC was originally approved in 2006. It was expected to be completed by late 2011, but only became operational in 2018. It consists of a constellation of 8 satellites. NavIC satellites are placed in two types of orbits: geostationary orbit (GEO) and inclined geosynchronous orbit (IGSO). The altitude of these orbits is about 36,000 km. Currently, 7 satellites are active. The primary service area of NavIC up to 1500 kms from the boundaries of Indian landmass. In this region, it provides accurate position information service accuracy of better than 20 m. IRNSS will provide two types of services:
Standard Positioning Service (SPS): which is provided to all the users.
Restricted Service (RS): which is an encrypted service and much more accurate (in the range of 1 to 5 meters), and meant for defence applications and use by armed forces.

Q) Consider the following statements about the Chief Election Commissioner (CEC) of India:

There is no prescribed procedure for appointing the Chief Election Commissioner and Election Commissioners in the Indian constitution.
Currently, the President appoints the CEC and two ECs on the advice of the Prime Minister and council of ministers.
The CEC can be removed from office only through a process of removal similar to that of a Supreme Court judge by the Parliament.

Which of the following statements given above are correct?

1 and 2 only
1 and 3 only
2 and 3 only
1, 2 and 3

Explanation:

Recently, the Union Government introduced a Bill removing the Chief Justice of India (CJI) from a three-member panel to select the Chief Election Commissioner (CEC) and Election Commissioners.

Statements 1 and 2 are correct: There is no prescribed procedure for appointing the Chief Election Commissioner and Election Commissioners in the Indian constitution. Currently, the President appoints the CEC and two ECs on the advice of the Prime Minister and council of ministers. Therefore, it is the executive power of the President to appoint CEC and ECs. However, according to Article 324(5), the Parliament has the power to regulate the terms of conditions of service and tenure of ECs. It is under this article that the Parliament has made laws to date.
Statements 3 is correct: CEC and ECs have a fixed tenure of six years, or up to the age of 65 years, whichever is earlier. (This tenure is fixed as per the Election Commission (Conditions of Service of Election Commissioners and Transaction of Business) Act, 1991). He can resign anytime or can also be removed before the expiry of their term. The CEC can be removed from office only through a process of removal similar to that of a SC judge by Parliament.