APSC GS Question Paper 2023 Prelims – Download Solved Papers, Answer Keys

The Assam Public Service Commission (APSC) conducts the Combined Competitive Examination (CCE) to recruit candidates for various administrative posts in the state government. The Prelims examination is a crucial stage of this recruitment process, comprising General Studies (GS) Papers I, and Paper II. Aspirants preparing for future APSC exams must analyze previous years’ question papers to understand the pattern, difficulty level, and key topics. This article provides a detailed analysis of the APSC GS Question Paper, including solved papers, answer keys, and important insights.

1. Match the following books (List-1) with the authors (List-II):

List-1

a. A Comprehensive History of Assam

b. The Quest for Modern Assam: A History

c. The Ahoms: A Reimagined History

d. Asamiya Manuhar Itihas

List-II

1. Arup Jyoti Saikia

2. Arup Kumar Dutta

3. Dr. Nagen Saikia

4. Swarnalata Baruah

Select the correct answer using the codes given below.

a b c d

(A) 2 3 4 1

(B) 4 1 3 2

(D) 4 1 2 3

Answer:- D

Explanation

a. A Comprehensive History of Assam – Swarnalata Baruah
b. The Quest for Modern Assam: A History – Arup Jyoti Saikia
c. The Ahoms: A Reimagined History – Arup Kumar Dutta
d. Asamiya Manuhar Itihas – Dr. Nagen Saikia

2. With reference to the Charaideo Maidams, consider the following statements:

(i) These are mounds containing the remains of the royalty of the Varman dynasty.

(ii) They are located along the foothills of the Patkai Range.

(iii) Charaideo is now a UNESCO World Heritage Site.

(iv) The first king who was buried after death here was Swargadeo Gadadhar Singha.

Select the correct statement/statements using the codes given below.

(A) (i) and (iii) only

(B) (i), (ii) and (iv) only

(D) (i), (ii) and (iii) only

Answer:- C

Explanation

Statement (i): Incorrect. The Charaideo Maidams are burial mounds containing the remains of the royalty of the Ahom dynasty, not the Varman dynasty.
Statement (ii): Correct. They are located along the foothills of the Patkai Range in Assam.
Statement (iii): Incorrect. Charaideo Maidams have been nominated for UNESCO World Heritage Site status but are not yet inscribed as one.
Statement (iv): Incorrect

3. With reference to the Archaeological Survey of India (ASI), consider the following statements:

(i) The prime concern of ASI is the maintenance of ancient monuments and archaeological sites and remains of national importance.

(ii) It does not regulate the Antiquities and Art Treasures Act, 1972.

(iii) Alexander Cunningham was appointed as the first Director General of ASI.

(iv) ASI is attached to the Ministry of Education, Government of India.

Select the correct statement/ statements using the codes given below.

(A) (i) only

(B) (i) and (iii) only

(D) (i), (ii), (iii) and (iv)

Answer:- B

Explanation

Statement (i): Correct. The prime concern of the Archaeological Survey of India (ASI) is the maintenance of ancient monuments and archaeological sites and remains of national importance.
Statement (ii): Incorrect. The ASI does regulate the Antiquities and Art Treasures Act, 1972, which governs the export and trade of antiquities and art treasures in India.
Statement (iii): Correct. Alexander Cunningham was appointed as the first Director General of the ASI in 1861.
Statement (iv): Incorrect. The ASI is attached to the Ministry of Culture, not the Ministry of Education.

Thus, only statements (i) and (iii) are correct.

4. Match the following wetlands (List-I) with the districts where these are located (List-II):

List-I

a. Urpad Beel

b. Son Beel

c. Tamranga Beel

d. Nandini-Sonai Beel

List-II

1. Bongaigaon

2. Goalpara

3. Morigaon

4. Karimganj

Select the correct answer using the codes given below.

a b c d

2 4 1 3

4 1 3 2

(D) 3 1 2 4

Answer:- A

Explanation

Urpad Beel: Located in Goalpara district.
Son Beel: Located in Karimganj district.
Tamranga Beel: Located in Bongaigaon district.
Nandini-Sonai Beel: Located in Morigaon district.

5. Match the following institutions (List-I) with the years of their establishment (List-II)

List-1

a. Cotton College

b. Gauhati University

c. Assam Agricultural University

d. Tezpur University

List-II

1. 1901

2. 1969

3. 1948

4. 1994

Select the correct answer using the codes given below.

a b c d

(A) 1 2 3 4

(B) 2 3 1 4

(D) 1 3 2 4

Answer:- D

Explanation

Cotton College: Established in 1901.
Gauhati University: Established in 1948.
Assam Agricultural University: Established in 1969.
Tezpur University: Established in 1994.

Thus, the matching sequence is:
a – 1, b – 3, c – 2, d – 4.

6. Consider the following developments pertaining to the history of modern education in India:

(i) Sadler University Commission

(ii) Lord Macaulay’s Minute

(iii) Raleigh Commission

(iv) Wood’s Dispatch

Select the correct chronological order of these developments using the codes given below.

(A) (i)-(iii)-(ii)-(iv)

(B) (ii)-(iii)-(i)-(iv)

(D) (i)-(ii)-(iii)-(iv)

Answer:- C

Explanation

Lord Macaulay’s Minute (1835): Introduced English as the medium of instruction in India, promoting Western-style education.
Wood’s Dispatch (1854): Known as the “Magna Carta of English Education in India,” it laid down a comprehensive plan for education in India.
Raleigh Commission (1902): Formed to evaluate university education in India, which led to the Indian Universities Act of 1904.
Sadler University Commission (1917-1919): Examined the problems of Calcutta University and suggested reforms to improve higher education.

Thus, the chronological order is:
Lord Macaulay’s Minute → Wood’s Dispatch → Raleigh Commission → Sadler University Commission.

7. With reference to the Khajuraho Group of Monuments, consider the following statements:

(i) The temples at Khajuraho were built during the Chandella dynasty.

(ii) The temples at Khajuraho are associated with Hinduism and Jainism.

(iii) The temples were built in Dravidian-style architecture.

(iv) These are situated in Chhatarpur district of Maharashtra.

Select the correct statement/ statements using the codes given below.

(A) (i) only

(B) (i) and (ii) only

(D) (i) and (iv) only

Answer:- B

Explanation

Statement (i): Correct
The temples at Khajuraho were built during the Chandella dynasty, primarily between 950–1050 CE.
Statement (ii): Correct
The temples at Khajuraho are associated with both Hinduism and Jainism, showcasing the cultural and religious diversity of the time.
Statement (iii): Incorrect
The temples are built in the Nagara style of architecture, not the Dravidian style. The Nagara style is characterized by its curvilinear shikhara (tower).
Statement (iv): Incorrect
The Khajuraho Group of Monuments is located in the Chhatarpur district of Madhya Pradesh, not Maharashtra.

Thus, only statements (i) and (ii) are correct.

8. Consider the following events about the Freedom Movement of India:

(i) Mountbatten Plan

(ii) Quit India Movement

(iii) Wavell Plan

(iv) Royal Indian Navy Mutiny

Select the correct chronological order of these events using the codes given below.

(A) (ii)-(iii)-(iv)-(i)

(B) (ii)-(i)-(iii)-(iv)

(D) (ii)-(i)-(iv)-(iii)

Answer:- A

Explanation

Quit India Movement (1942)
Launched during World War II by the Indian National Congress, it called for an end to British rule in India.
Wavell Plan (1945)
Proposed by Lord Wavell, the then Viceroy of India, to resolve the political deadlock between the Indian National Congress and the Muslim League.
Royal Indian Navy Mutiny (1946)
A significant revolt by Indian sailors against British authority, reflected growing unrest in the armed forces.
Mountbatten Plan (1947)
A proposal by Lord Mountbatten for the partition of British India, leading to the creation of India and Pakistan.

Hence, the correct chronological order is Quit India Movement (1942) → Wavell Plan (1945) → Royal Indian Navy Mutiny (1946) → Mountbatten Plan (1947).

9. The NITI Forum of North-East India was set up in February 2018 to address various challenges in the region and recommend requisite interventions to achieve sustainable economic growth. The Forum has identified 5 focus areas for the North-East. Which of the following is/are not in the list of focus areas?

(i) Tourism

(ii) Pisciculture

(iii) Pulses

(iv) Fruits

Select the correct answer using the codes given below.

(A) (i) only

(B) (i) and (ii) only

(D) (iii) and (iv) only

Answer:- C

Explanation

The NITI Forum for North-East, established in February 2018, focuses on key areas for the sustainable economic development of the region. The 5 identified focus areas include:

Tourism
Pisciculture (fish farming)
Bamboo
Dairy
Horticulture

Pulses are not included in the list of focus areas for the North-East identified by the Forum.

10. Which of the following pairs is/are incorrectly matched?

(i) State bird of Assam

: Hornbill

(ii) State animal of Assam: Rhino

(iii) State flower of Assam : Sunflower

(iv) State tree of Assam : Hollong

Select the correct answer using the codes given below.

(A) (i) only

(B) (i) and (iii) only

(D) (iii) and (iv) only

Answer:- B

Explanation

State bird of Assam: Hornbill – Incorrect.
The state bird of Assam is White-winged Wood Duck (Deo Hanh), not Hornbill.
State animal of Assam: Rhino – Correct.
The state animal of Assam is the One-horned Rhinoceros.
State flower of Assam: Sunflower – Incorrect.
The state flower of Assam is the Foxtail Orchid (Kopou Phool), not Sunflower.
State tree of Assam: Hollong – Correct.
The state tree of Assam is Hollong (Dipterocarpus macrocarpus).

11. Consider the following pairs:

Places Events in the life of Buddha

(i) Lumbini : Birth

(ii) Sarnath : Dharmachakrapravartana

(iii) Kushinagar : The Enlightenment

(iv) Banaras : The Miracles

Select the correctly matched pairs using the codes given below.

(A) (i) and (iv) only

(B) (i) and (ii) only

(D) (i), (ii) and (iii) only

Answer:- B

Explanation

Lumbini : Birth – Correct.
Lumbini, located in present-day Nepal, is the birthplace of Buddha.
Sarnath : Dharmachakrapravartana – Correct.
Sarnath is the place where Buddha delivered his first sermon, also known as the Dharmachakrapravartana or the “Turning of the Wheel of Dharma.”
Kushinagar : The Enlightenment – Incorrect.
Kushinagar is where Buddha attained Parinirvana (death and final liberation), not enlightenment. The enlightenment took place in Bodh Gaya.
Banaras : The Miracles – Incorrect.
Banaras (Varanasi) is associated with the Buddha’s teachings and sermons, but the Miracles (such as walking on water) are not specifically linked to Banaras. The miracles occurred in various places during Buddha’s life.

Thus, the correctly matched pairs are (i) and (ii) only.

12. Consider the following statements regarding the Delimitation Commission of India:

(i) The Delimitation Commission is appointed by the President of India and works in collaboration with the Election Commission of India.

(ii) Article 82 of the Constitution of India states that the Parliament is required by law to enact a Delimitation Act following each Census.

(iii) The first delimitation exercise in post-independent India was held in 1952 as per the 1951 Census.

(iv) The present delimitation of parliamentary constituencies has been done on the basis of the 2001 Census figures under the provision of the Delimitation Act, 2002.

Select the correct statement/ statements using the codes given below.

(A) (i) only

(B) (i) and (ii) only

(D) (i), (ii), (iii) and (iv)

Answer:- D

Explanation

(i) The Delimitation Commission is appointed by the President of India and works in collaboration with the Election Commission of India.
- Correct. The President of India appoints the Delimitation Commission, and it works in coordination with the Election Commission to define boundaries of constituencies.

(ii) Article 82 of the Constitution of India states that the Parliament is required by law to enact a Delimitation Act following each Census.

- Correct. Article 82 mandates that the Parliament enacts a Delimitation Act after each Census to readjust the boundaries of constituencies.

(iii) The first delimitation exercise in post-independent India was held in 1952 as per the 1951 Census.

- Correct. The first delimitation exercise in post-independent India was held in 1952 as per the 1951 Census.

(iv) The present delimitation of parliamentary constituencies has been done on the basis of the 2001 Census figures under the provision of the Delimitation Act, 2002.

- Correct. The present delimitation of parliamentary constituencies has been done on the basis of the 2001 Census figures under the provision of the Delimitation Act, 2002.

13. Consider the following statements regarding the Election Commission of India:

(i) The Election Commission of India is a body constitutionally empowered to conduct free and fair elections to the National and State Legislatures including the Panchayats.

(ii) The power of the Election Commission of India is derived from Article 324 of the Constitution of India.

(iii) Rajiv Kumar is the present Chief Election Commissioner who joined his office on 15th, May, 2022.

(iv) The Election Commission is reconstituted every five years.

Select the incorrect statement/ statements using the codes given below.

(A) (i) and (ii) only

(B) (ii) and (iii) only

(D) (iii) only

Answer:- C

Explanation

(i) The Election Commission of India is a body constitutionally empowered to conduct free and fair elections to the National and State Legislatures including the Panchayats.
- Incorrect. While the Election Commission of India is constitutionally empowered to conduct elections for the National and State Legislatures (i.e., Parliament and State Assemblies), it does not conduct elections for Panchayats. Elections for Panchayats are under the jurisdiction of State Election Commissions.

(ii) The power of the Election Commission of India is derived from Article 324 of the Constitution of India.

- Correct. Article 324 of the Indian Constitution empowers the Election Commission to supervise, direct, and control the electoral process.

(iii) Rajiv Kumar is the present Chief Election Commissioner who joined his office on 15th, May, 2022.

- Correct. Rajiv Kumar became the Chief Election Commissioner (CEC) of India on May 15, 2022.

(iv) The Election Commission is reconstituted every five years.

- Incorrect. The Election Commission is not reconstituted every five years. It remains in existence continuously and only changes if a new Chief Election Commissioner (CEC) or Election Commissioners are appointed or in case of any vacancies.

Thus, (i) and (iv) are incorrect.

14. Consider the following statements regarding the Goods and Services Tax (GST) of India:

(i) GST is a successor to VAT used in India on the supply of goods and services.

(ii) GST came into effect from 1st July, 2017 through the implementation of the one hundred and first Amendment of the Constitution of India.

(iii) Every decision of the GST Council is to be taken by a majority of not less than three- fourths of the weighted votes of the members present and voting at the meeting.

(iv) The GST Council is chaired by the Prime Minister of India.

Select the correct statement/ statements using the codes given below.

(A) (i) only

(B) (ii) only

(D) (i), (ii) and (iii) only

Answer:- D

Explanation

(i) GST is a successor to VAT used in India on the supply of goods and services.
- Correct. GST replaced various indirect taxes like VAT, service tax, and excise duty, thus serving as a successor to VAT and other similar taxes on goods and services.

(ii) GST came into effect from 1st July, 2017 through the implementation of the one hundred and first Amendment of the Constitution of India.

- Correct. GST was implemented on July 1, 2017, following the 101st Constitutional Amendment, which provided the legal framework for GST.

(iii) Every decision of the GST Council is to be taken by a majority of not less than three-fourths of the weighted votes of the members present and voting at the meeting.

- Correct. According to Article 279A of the Indian Constitution, decisions in the GST Council require a three-fourths majority of the weighted votes of the members present and voting.

(iv) The GST Council is chaired by the Prime Minister of India.

- Incorrect. The GST Council is chaired by the Union Finance Minister, not the Prime Minister. The Prime Minister is not directly involved in the day-to-day functioning of the GST Council.

15. Consider the following statements regarding Article 226 of the Constitution of India:

(i) Article 226 of the Constitution of India einpowers a High Court to issue writs including habeas corpus, mandamus, certiorari, prohibition and quo warranto for the enforcement of the Fundamental Rights of the citizens and for any other purpose.

(ii) The phrase ‘for any other purpose’ refers to enforcement of an ordinary legal right. This implies that the writ jurisdiction of the High Court is wider than that of the Supreme Court.

(iii) The Supreme Court can issue writs only for the enforcement of the Fundamental Rights and not for any other purpose, i.e., it does not extend to a case where the breach of an ordinary legal right is alleged.

(iv) The High Court can issue writs to any person, authority and government not only within its territorial jurisdiction but also outside its territorial jurisdiction if the cause of action arises within its territorial jurisdiction.

Select the correct statements using the codes given below.

(A) (i), (ii) and (iii) only

(B) (iii) and (iv) only

(D) (i), (ii), (iii) and (iv)

Answer:- D

Explanation

(i) Article 226 of the Constitution of India empowers a High Court to issue writs including habeas corpus, mandamus, certiorari, prohibition and quo warranto for the enforcement of the Fundamental Rights of the citizens and for any other purpose.
- Correct. Article 226 empowers High Courts to issue writs not only for the enforcement of Fundamental Rights but also for any other purpose. This allows the High Courts to issue writs to enforce legal rights as well.

(ii) The phrase ‘for any other purpose’ refers to enforcement of an ordinary legal right. This implies that the writ jurisdiction of the High Court is wider than that of the Supreme Court.

- Correct. The phrase ‘for any other purpose’ does refer to the enforcement of ordinary legal rights, and since the High Court can issue writs in a broader range of cases (including the enforcement of legal rights beyond fundamental rights), its jurisdiction is indeed wider than that of the Supreme Court in this respect.

(iii) The Supreme Court can issue writs only for the enforcement of the Fundamental Rights and not for any other purpose, i.e., it does not extend to a case where the breach of an ordinary legal right is alleged.

- Correct. The Supreme Court can issue writs under Article 32 of the Constitution only for the enforcement of Fundamental Rights. It does not have the jurisdiction to issue writs for the enforcement of ordinary legal rights, unlike the High Court under Article 226.

(iv) The High Court can issue writs to any person, authority, and government not only within its territorial jurisdiction but also outside its territorial jurisdiction if the cause of action arises within its territorial jurisdiction.

- Correct. The High Court has the power to issue writs beyond its territorial jurisdiction, provided that the cause of action arises within its jurisdiction. This is a unique feature that gives the High Court extensive powers.

Thus, all the statements are correct, making (D) (i), (ii), (iii) and (iv) the correct answer.

16. Which of the following Autonomous Councils in Assam has/have been formed under the Sixth Schedule of the Constitution of India?

(i) Bodoland Territorial Council or Bodoland Territorial Region

(ii) Karbi Anglong Autonomous Council

(iii) Dima Council Hasao Autonomous

(iv) Rabha Hasong Autonomous Council

Select the correct answer using the codes given below.

(A) (i) only

(B) (i) and (ii) only

(D) (i), (ii), (iii) and (iv)

Answer:- C

Explanation

All the following Autonomous Councils in Assam have been formed under the Sixth Schedule of the Constitution of India:

Bodoland Territorial Council or Bodoland Territorial Region (BTR): This council is established under the Sixth Schedule, specifically as a result of the Bodoland Territorial Region Accord signed in 2020.
Karbi Anglong Autonomous Council: This council is also formed under the Sixth Schedule and governs the Karbi Anglong district of Assam.
Dima Hasao Autonomous Council: Formerly known as North Cachar Hills Autonomous Council, it was formed under the Sixth Schedule to govern the Dima Hasao district in Assam.

17. Consider the following statements regarding the special provisions to some of the States of India made by the Constitution:

(i) Article 371C provides for the special provisions for the State of Assam. Under this Article, the President of India is empowered to provide for the creation of a committee of the Assam Legislative Assembly consisting of members elected from Tribal Areas of the State and such other members as he/ she may specify.

(ii) Article 371C was added by the 22nd Amendment Act of 1969.

(iii) Article 371D deals with special provisions with respect to the State of Andhra Pradesh and Article 371E deals with the establishment of Central University in Andhra Pradesh.

(iv) 32nd Constitutional Amendment Act, which was made in 1973, inserted Articles 371D and 371E into the Constitution of India.

Select the incorrect statement/ statements using the codes given below.

(A) (i) only

(B) (iii) and (iv) only

(D) (i) and (iii) only

Answer:- C

Explanation

Statement (i): Article 371C does indeed provide for special provisions for the state of Assam, specifically with respect to the creation of a committee of the Assam Legislative Assembly consisting of members from the tribal areas. This is correct.
Statement (ii): Article 371C was added by the 22nd Amendment Act of 1969, which is also correct.
Statement (iii): Article 371D deals with special provisions for the state of Andhra Pradesh, while Article 371E pertains to the establishment of a Central University in Andhra Pradesh. This statement is incorrect because Article 371D deals with the establishment of the institution of the State of Andhra Pradesh, not the specific university; Article 371E, in fact, deals with the establishment of the Central University in Andhra Pradesh.
Statement (iv): The 32nd Amendment Act of 1973 did insert Articles 371D and 371E into the Constitution of India, which is correct.

18. Consider the following statements regarding the provisions of official languages in India:

(i) Article 343 of the Constitution of India has made Hindi in the Devanagari script as the National Language of India.

(ii) The Legislature of a State may by law adopt any one or more of the languages in use in the State as the official language/ languages of the State as per Article 345 of the Constitution of India.

(iii) The Assam Official Language Act, 1960 has been legislated as per Article 345 of the Constitution of India.

Select the correct statements using the codes given below.

(A) (i) and (ii) only

(B) (ii) and (iii) only

(D) (i), (ii) and (iii)

Answer:- B

Explanation

Statement (i): Article 343 of the Constitution of India does not declare Hindi as the “National Language” of India. It declares Hindi in the Devanagari script as the official language of the Republic of India. The Constitution does not recognize any language as the national language. Therefore, statement (i) is incorrect.
Statement (ii): Article 345 of the Constitution of India allows the Legislature of a State to adopt any one or more of the languages in use in the State as the official language(s) of the State. This is correct.
Statement (iii): The Assam Official Language Act, 1960 was indeed legislated as per Article 345 of the Constitution of India, which grants states the power to adopt their official language. This is correct.

Thus, statements (ii) and (iii) are correct, while statement (i) is incorrect. Therefore, the correct answer is (B).

19. Match the following Schedules of the Indian Constitution (List-I) with their subject matters (List-II):

List-I

a. Fourth Schedule

b. Eleventh Schedule

c. Eighth Schedule

d. Third Schedule

List-II

1. Forms of Oath or Affirmations

2. Languages

3. Powers of Panchayats

4. Allocation of Seats in the Council of States

Select the correct answer using the codes given below.

a b c d

(A) 1 3 2 4

(B) 4 3 2 1

(D) 1 2 4 3

Answer:- B

Explanation

Fourth Schedule: This Schedule deals with the allocation of seats in the Council of States (Rajya Sabha). Hence, the correct match is a-4.
Eleventh Schedule: This Schedule specifies the powers of Panchayats in relation to the matters listed in the Schedule. Hence, the correct match is b-3.
Eighth Schedule: This Schedule lists the languages recognized by the Constitution of India. Hence, the correct match is c-2.
Third Schedule: This Schedule contains the forms of oath or affirmations for various public offices in India. Hence, the correct match is d-1.

Thus, the correct matching is (B) 4 3 2 1.

20. Consider the following factors regarding the declaration of political party as a State Party by the Election Commission of India:

(i) If it secures 6% of the valid votes polled in the State in a general election to the respective State Legislative Assembly and also, it wins 2 seats in the same State Legislative Assembly

(ii) If it secures 6% of the total votes in the State in a general election to the Lok Sabha and also, it wins 1 seat in the Lok Sabha from the same State

(iii) If it wins 3% of seats in the Legislative Assembly at a general election to the Legislative Assembly of the State concerned or 3 seats in the Assembly (whichever is more)

(iv) If it secures 16% of the total valid votes polled in the State at a general election to the Lok Sabha from the State or to the State Legislative Assembly

Select the incorrect factor/factors using the codes given below.

(A) (i), (ii) and (iii) only

(B) (iii) and (iv) only

(D) (iv) only

Answer:- D

Explanation

(i): This is correct. A political party is declared a State Party if it secures 6% of the valid votes polled in the State in a general election to the State Legislative Assembly and also wins 2 seats in the same State Legislative Assembly.
(ii): This is also correct. A political party can be declared a State Party if it secures 6% of the total votes in the State in a general election to the Lok Sabha and wins 1 seat in the Lok Sabha from the same State.
(iii): This is correct. A political party can be declared a State Party if it wins 3% of seats in the Legislative Assembly or 3 seats in the Assembly (whichever is more).
(iv): This is incorrect. A political party is not declared a State Party if it secures 16% of the total valid votes polled in the State at a general election to the Lok Sabha or the State Legislative Assembly. The correct threshold is 6% of the valid votes for recognition as a State Party, not 16%.

21. Which of the following statements are correct about the difference between censure and no-confidence motion?

(i) A censure motion should state the reason for its adoption. On the other hand, a no-confidence motion need not state the reason for its adoption.

(ii) A no-confidence motion can be moved only against the Council of Ministers. In contrast, a censure motion can be moved against the Council of Ministers or an individual Minister, or a group of Ministers.

(iii) The government must resign if a no-confidence motion is passed. On the other hand, the government need not resign if a censure motion is passed.

(iv) A censure motion can be moved in both the Lok Sabha and the Rajya Sabha, whereas a no- confidence motion can be moved only in the Lok Sabha.

Select the correct answer using the codes given below.

(A) (i), (iii) and (iv) only

(B) (ii), (iii) and (iv) only

(D) (i), (ii) and (iii) only

Answer:- D

Explanation:

(i) A censure motion should state the reason for its adoption. On the other hand, a no-confidence motion need not state the reason for its adoption:
- This is correct. A censure motion typically specifies the reasons for disapproving the actions of the government or an individual minister. In contrast, a no-confidence motion does not necessarily have to specify the reasons, it simply states a lack of confidence in the government.
(ii) A no-confidence motion can be moved only against the Council of Ministers. In contrast, a censure motion can be moved against the Council of Ministers or an individual Minister, or a group of Ministers:
- This is correct. A no-confidence motion targets the entire government, i.e., the Council of Ministers, whereas a censure motion can be directed towards the government as a whole, an individual minister, or a group of ministers.
(iii) The government must resign if a no-confidence motion is passed. On the other hand, the government need not resign if a censure motion is passed:
- This is correct. If a no-confidence motion is passed, the government must resign because it indicates a lack of confidence in the administration. However, a censure motion does not require the resignation of the government, as it is more of a disapproval than a rejection of the government’s mandate.
(iv) A censure motion can be moved in both the Lok Sabha and the Rajya Sabha, whereas a no-confidence motion can be moved only in the Lok Sabha:
- This is incorrect. A censure motion can be moved in both the Lok Sabha and the Rajya Sabha, but a no-confidence motion can only be moved in the Lok Sabha, not the Rajya Sabha, as it relates to the Council of Ministers, which is only accountable to the Lok Sabha.

Thus, the correct statements are (i), (ii), and (iii). Therefore, the answer is (D).

22. Consider the following statements regarding the Assam Legislative Assembly:

(i) According to the provisions of the Government of India Act, 1935, a Bicameral Legislature of Assam Province came into existence in 1937.

(ii) The first sitting of the Assam Legislative Assembly took place on 7th April, 1937 in the Assembly Chamber at Shillong.

(iii) Pulakesh Baruah and Ganesh Kutum were the Speakers of Assam Legislative Assembly from Asom Gana Parishad and Janata Party respectively.

(iv) Babu Basanta Kumar Das was the first Speaker of the Assam Legislative Assembly.

Select the correct statement/ statements using the codes given below.

(A) (i) only

(B) (ii) and (iii) only

(D) (i), (ii), (iii) and (iv)

Answer:- C

Explanation

Statement (i): True. The Government of India Act, 1935, introduced a Bicameral Legislature in the Assam Province, and it came into existence in 1937.
Statement (ii): True. The first sitting of the Assam Legislative Assembly was held on 7th April 1937 in the Assembly Chamber at Shillong.
Statement (iii): False. Pulakesh Baruah and Ganesh Kutum were not associated with the roles of Speakers of the Assam Legislative Assembly as described.
Statement (iv): True. Babu Basanta Kumar Das was the first Speaker of the Assam Legislative Assembly.

23. It is easier to roll a barrel than to pull it because

(A) the full weight of the barrel comes into play when it is pulled

(B) rolling friction is much less than sliding friction

(D) of a reason other than those mentioned

Answer:- B

Explanation

When a barrel is rolled, rolling friction comes into play, which is significantly smaller than sliding friction. Rolling friction occurs at the point of contact between the barrel and the surface, where deformation is minimal. On the other hand, pulling the barrel causes sliding friction, which requires more force to overcome. Hence, rolling is easier than pulling.

24. The mass of a body is different from its weight because

(i) mass is a variable quantity whereas weight is constant

(ii) mass varies very little at different places whereas weight varies a lot

(iii) mass is constant but weight decreases as the body moves from the Poles to the Equator

(iv) mass is a measure of quantity of matter whereas weight is a force

Select the correct reason/reasons using the codes given below.

(A) (i) only

(B) (ii) and (iv) only

(D) (iii) and (iv) only

Answer:- D

Explanation

Statement (i): Incorrect. Mass is a constant quantity, and it does not vary. However, weight varies because it depends on the gravitational force.
Statement (ii): Incorrect. While mass remains constant everywhere, weight varies significantly depending on the location (due to changes in gravitational acceleration). However, the phrase “mass varies very little” is misleading because mass does not vary at all.
Statement (iii): Correct. Weight is affected by gravity, which decreases as we move from the Poles to the Equator due to the Earth’s shape and rotation, leading to a decrease in gravitational acceleration.
Statement (iv): Correct. Mass is the measure of the quantity of matter, while weight is the force exerted by gravity on the mass.

Thus, the correct statements are (iii) and (iv).

25. Paddy fields are chief sources of which of the following greenhouse gases?

(i) Methane

(ii) Carbon dioxide

(iii) Nitrous oxide

(iv) Ozone

Select the correct answer using the codes given below.

(A) (i) only

(B) (ii) only

(D) (ii), (iii) and (iv) only

Answer:- C

Explanation

Methane (CH₄): Paddy fields are a significant source of methane, which is produced by anaerobic decomposition of organic matter in waterlogged soils.
Carbon dioxide (CO₂): While plants absorb CO₂ for photosynthesis, paddy fields are not significant sources of this greenhouse gas.
Nitrous oxide (N₂O): Some paddy fields emit nitrous oxide due to the use of nitrogen-based fertilizers and microbial processes in the soil.
Ozone (O₃): Paddy fields do not emit ozone directly; ozone is a secondary pollutant formed in the atmosphere through chemical reactions involving other pollutants.

Thus, the primary greenhouse gases emitted by paddy fields are methane and nitrous oxide.

26. Which of the following groups contains/contain only non-biodegradable materials?

(i) Wood, paper, leather

(ii) Plastic, bakelite, DDT

(iii) Plastic, thermocol, wood

(iv) Thermocol, plates made from dried leaves, detergents

Select the correct answer using the codes given below.

(A) (i) and (ii) only

(B) (ii) only

(D) (iii) and (iv) only

Answer:- B

Explanation

(i) Wood, paper, leather: Incorrect. All these materials are biodegradable as they can be broken down by natural microorganisms into simpler substances.
(ii) Plastic, bakelite, DDT: Correct. These are non-biodegradable materials and persist in the environment for a long time.
(iii) Plastic, thermocol, wood: Incorrect. While wood is biodegradable, plastic and thermocol are not.
(iv) Thermocol, plates made from dried leaves, detergents: Incorrect. Plates made from dried leaves are biodegradable, but thermocol and most synthetic detergents are non-biodegradable.

Hence, only group (ii) contains biodegradable materials.

27. For a given liquid, the rate of evaporation depends on

(i) the temperature of the liquid

(ii) the temperature of air

(iii) the surface area of the liquid

Select the correct factor/factors using the codes given below.

(A) (i) only

(B) (i) and (ii) only

(D) (i), (ii) and (iii)

Answer:- D

Explanation

The rate of evaporation of a liquid depends on the following factors:

Temperature of the liquid (i): Higher temperatures increase the kinetic energy of liquid molecules, making evaporation faster.
Temperature of air (ii): Warmer air can hold more water vapor, which accelerates the evaporation process.
Surface area of the liquid (iii): A larger surface area allows more molecules to escape into the air, increasing the rate of evaporation.

Thus, all three factors play a role in determining the rate of evaporation.

28. One should not connect a number of electrical appliances to the same power socket because

(i) this can damage the appliances

(ii) this can damage the domestic wiring due to overheating

(iii) the appliances will not get full voltage

Select the valid reason/reasons using the codes given below.

(A) (ii) and (iii) only

(B) (ii) only

(D) (iii) only

Answer:- C

Explanation

(i) This can damage the appliances: True. Overloading a socket can lead to voltage fluctuations or short circuits, potentially damaging the connected appliances.
(ii) This can damage the domestic wiring due to overheating: True. Overloading the circuit increases the current flow, which can cause overheating of the wires, leading to insulation damage or even fire.
(iii) The appliances will not get full voltage: False. Voltage is determined by the power supply, and unless the circuit is overloaded to the point of significant voltage drops, appliances will generally receive full voltage.

Thus, the valid reasons are (i) and (ii).

29. Consider the following pairs of scientists and discoveries:

Scientists Discoveries

(i) Copernicus : Law of gravitation

(ii) Kepler : Laws of planetary motion

(iii) Galileo : Moons of Jupiter

(iv) Newton : Heliocentric theory

Select the correctly matched pairs using the codes given below.

(A) (i) and (ii) only

(B) (i), (ii) and (iii) only

(D) (ii) and (iii) only

Answer:- D

Explanation

(i) Copernicus: Law of gravitation – Incorrect. Copernicus proposed the heliocentric theory, which stated that the Sun is at the center of the solar system, not the Earth. The law of gravitation was discovered by Isaac Newton.
(ii) Kepler: Laws of planetary motion – Correct. Kepler is known for his three laws of planetary motion, which describe the orbits of planets around the Sun.
(iii) Galileo: Moons of Jupiter – Correct. Galileo discovered the four largest moons of Jupiter (Io, Europa, Ganymede, and Callisto) using his telescope.
(iv) Newton: Heliocentric theory – Incorrect. Newton developed the law of gravitation and other fundamental principles of physics but did not propose the heliocentric theory; that was Copernicus’ contribution.

Thus, the correctly matched pairs are (ii) and (iii).

30. From the distance-time graphs of two motorists A and B, it can be seen that

(A) A travelled with uniform speed but B did not

(B) A travelled faster than B throughout

(D) A and B travelled with equal speed

Answer:- C

Explanation

From the distance-time graphs of two motorists A and B, it can be seen that B travelled faster than A throughout.

31. Solutions are of many types. Consider the following types of solution with an example each:

(i) Gas in liquid-Vinegar

(ii) Solid in liquid-Brine

(iii) Solid in solid-Brass

(iv) Liquid in liquid-Coca-Cola

Select the correctly matched pairs using the codes given below.

(A) (i) and (ii) only

(B) (ii) and (iii) only

(D) (ii), (iii) and (iv) only

Answer:- D

Explanation

(i) Gas in liquid – Vinegar: Incorrect. Vinegar is a solution of acetic acid (a liquid) in water (also a liquid), and not gas dissolved in liquid. A correct example of gas in liquid would be carbonated water, where carbon dioxide gas is dissolved in water.
(ii) Solid in liquid – Brine: Correct. Brine is a solution of salt (solid) dissolved in water (liquid).
(iii) Solid in solid – Brass: Correct. Brass is an alloy of copper and zinc, both of which are solid, making it a solid in solid solution.
(iv) Liquid in liquid – Coca-Cola: Correct. Coca-Cola is a solution of various liquids, such as water, sugar syrup, and flavoring agents, making it a liquid in liquid solution.

Thus, the correctly matched pairs are (ii), (iii), and (iv).

32. Which of the following elements does sugar contain?

(i) Carbon

(ii) Nitrogen

(iii) Hydrogen

(iv) Oxygen

Select the correct answer using the codes given below.

(A) (i), (iii) and (iv) only.

(B) (i), (ii) and (iii) only

(D) (i) and (iv) only

Answer:- A

Explanation

Sugar, in its common form like sucrose (C₁₂H₂₂O₁₁), contains the following elements:

Carbon (i): Sugar contains carbon atoms as part of its molecular structure.
Hydrogen (iii): Hydrogen atoms are also present in sugar.
Oxygen (iv): Oxygen atoms are an essential part of sugar molecules.

Nitrogen (ii) is not present in sugar. Therefore, (i), (iii), and (iv) are the correct elements found in sugar.

33. Consider the following statements:

(i) Assam was formed into a Chief Commissioner’s Province in 1874.

(ii) Assam was declared as a Governor’s Province in 1921.

Select the correct statement/ statements using the codes given below.

(A) (i) only

(B) (ii) only

(D) Neither (i) nor (ii)

Answer:- C

Explanation

In 1874, Assam was separated from Bengal and made a Chief Commissioner’s Province. This change marked the beginning of Assam’s administrative independence.
In 1921, Assam was declared a Governor’s Province as part of the reorganization of British India under the Government of India Act, 1919.

Thus, both statements are correct.

34. The Interim Budget 2024 announcement for implementation of 3 Economic Railway Corridors identified under the PM Gati Shakti for enabling multi-modal connectivity includes which of the following?

(i) Energy, Mineral and Cement Corridors

(ii) Rural Corridors Roads Connectivity

(iii) Port Connectivity Corridors

(iv) High Traffic Density Corridors

Select the correct answer using the codes given below.

(A) (i) and (ii) only

(B) (i), (ii) and (iii) only

(D) (ii), (iii) and (iv) only

Answer:- C

Explanation

The Interim Budget 2024 announced the implementation of three key economic railway corridors under the PM Gati Shakti initiative. These corridors include:

Energy, Mineral, and Cement Corridors
Port Connectivity Corridors
High Traffic Density Corridors

These corridors aim to boost logistics efficiency, reduce costs, and promote multimodal connectivity, ultimately contributing to the country’s economic growth.

Thus, the correct answer is:

(C) (i), (iii) and (iv) only

35. Which of the following best describes/ describe the aim of ‘Green India Mission’ of the Government of India?

(i) Incorporating environmental benefits and costs into the Union and State’s budgets thereby implementing the ‘green accounting’.

(ii) Launching the second Green Revolution to enhance agricultural output so as to ensure food security to one and all in the future.

(iii) Restoring and enhancing forest cover responding to climate change by a combination of adaptation measures and mitigation.

Select the correct answer using the codes given below.

(A) (i) only

(B) (ii) and (iii) only

(D) (i), (ii) and (iii)

Answer:- C

Explanation

The Green India Mission, part of the National Action Plan on Climate Change (NAPCC), primarily focuses on:

Restoring and enhancing forest cover as a response to climate change, incorporating both adaptation and mitigation strategies. This mission is aimed at addressing climate change through ecosystem-based approaches and improving the carbon sink capacity of forests.

The other statements, while related to environmental goals, are not the specific aims of the Green India Mission:

(i) Green accounting is a broader concept aimed at integrating environmental benefits and costs into national accounting systems but is not a focus of the Green India Mission.

(ii) Second Green Revolution refers to increasing agricultural output for food security, which is part of broader agricultural policies but not the focus of the Green India Mission, which is more concerned with forestry and environmental sustainability.

Therefore, the Green India Mission focuses on forest restoration and enhancement as a key strategy to address climate change.

36. What is ‘Greenhouse Gas Protocol?

(A) It is an international accounting tool for government and business leaders to understand, quantify, and manage greenhouse emissions gas.

(B) It is an initiative of the United Nations to offer financial aid to developing countries to reduce greenhouse gas emissions and to adopt eco- friendly technologies.

(C) It is an inter-governmental agreement ratified by all the member countries of the United Nations to reduce greenhouse gas emissions to specified levels by the year 2030.

(D) It is one of the multi-lateral REDD+ initiatives hosted by the World Bank.

Answer:- A

Explanation

The Greenhouse Gas Protocol is a widely used international standard for accounting and reporting greenhouse gas emissions. It provides a framework for businesses and governments to measure and manage their emissions, helping them understand their carbon footprint and make informed decisions regarding climate actions. The protocol divides emissions into three scopes (Scope 1, Scope 2, and Scope 3), ensuring comprehensive tracking of direct and indirect emissions.

The other options do not correctly describe the Greenhouse Gas Protocol:

(B) describes a financial initiative for developing countries, which aligns more with mechanisms like the Green Climate Fund.
(C) refers to an inter-governmental agreement, which could be a general description of international climate agreements like the Paris Agreement, not the Greenhouse Gas Protocol.
(D) refers to the REDD+ initiative, which deals with reducing emissions from deforestation and forest degradation, unrelated to the GHG Protocol.

Hence, the Greenhouse Gas Protocol is specifically an accounting tool for understanding and managing greenhouse gas emissions.

37. Which of the following faunas are found in North-East India?

(i) Tokay gecko

(ii) Red panda

(iii) Hoolock gibbon

(iv) Lion-tailed macaque

Select the correct answer using the codes given below.

(A) (i) and (ii) only

(B) (ii) and (iii) only

(D) (i), (ii), (iii) and (iv)

Answer:- C

Explanation

Tokay Gecko (i): Found in North-East India, the Tokay gecko is a large lizard species commonly found in forests, as well as near human habitation in the region.
Red Panda (ii): The Red panda inhabits the temperate forests of the Eastern Himalayas, including parts of North-East India, such as Sikkim, Arunachal Pradesh, and Meghalaya.
Hoolock Gibbon (iii): The only ape found in India, Hoolock gibbons are native to the dense forests of North-East India.
Lion-tailed Macaque (iv): This species is endemic to the Western Ghats in South India and is not found in North-East India.

Hence, the fauna of North-East India includes Tokay gecko, Red panda, and Hoolock gibbon, but not the Lion-tailed macaque.

38. Which of the following National Parks in India are World Heritage Sites?

(i) Keoladeo National Park

(ii) Manas National Park

(iii) Nanda Devi Biosphere Reserve

(iv) Great Himalayan National Park

Select the correct answer using the codes given below.

(A) (i), (ii) and (iii) only

(B) (ii), (iii) and (iv) only

(D) (i), (ii), (iii) and (iv)

Answer:- D

Explanation

Keoladeo National Park (Rajasthan): A UNESCO World Heritage Site, this park is known for its rich birdlife and serves as a vital wintering ground for aquatic birds.
Manas National Park (Assam): Recognized as a UNESCO World Heritage Site, it is famous for its biodiversity and status as a tiger and elephant reserve.
Nanda Devi Biosphere Reserve (Uttarakhand): It includes the Nanda Devi and Valley of Flowers National Parks, which are UNESCO World Heritage Sites due to their exceptional natural beauty and biodiversity.
Great Himalayan National Park (Himachal Pradesh): Designated as a UNESCO World Heritage Site, it is recognized for its outstanding biodiversity and importance for conservation.

Thus, all the mentioned national parks are UNESCO World Heritage Sites.

39. Protection of wildlife comes under which of the following in the Constitution of India?

(i)Fundamental Duties

(ii)Directive Principles

(iii)Seventh Schedule

(iv)Fundamental Rights

Select the correct answer using the codes given below.

(A) (i) and (ii) only

(B) (ii) and (iv) only

(D) (i), (ii) and (iii) only

Answer:- D

Explanation

Here is the explanation for the provisions under the Constitution of India related to wildlife protection:

Fundamental Duties (Article 51A(g)):
It is a fundamental duty of every citizen to protect and improve the natural environment, including forests, lakes, rivers, and wildlife, and to have compassion for living creatures.
Directive Principles of State Policy (Article 48A):
The State is directed to protect and improve the environment and safeguard forests and wildlife under the Directive Principles of State Policy.
Seventh Schedule:
Under the Seventh Schedule, the “Protection of wild animals and birds” is included in the Concurrent List (Entry 17B), meaning both the central and state governments have jurisdiction over wildlife protection.
Fundamental Rights:
There is no direct mention of wildlife protection under Fundamental Rights, but environmental issues may indirectly connect with the Right to Life (Article 21). However, wildlife protection is not explicitly listed here.

Thus, wildlife protection is explicitly addressed under Fundamental Duties, Directive Principles, and the Seventh Schedule, making (i), (ii), and (iii) correct.

40. What is the name of the feature that allows organisms to survive in the conditions of their habitat?

(A) Adjustment

(B) Adaptation

(D) Adaptive variation

Answer:- B

Explanation

Adaptation is the process by which organisms develop characteristics or features that enable them to survive and reproduce in their specific habitats. These features can be structural, behavioral, or physiological. For example:

Camouflage in animals like chameleons helps them avoid predators.
Thick fur in polar animals like bears provides insulation against cold.

Adaptations evolve over generations through the process of natural selection, ensuring that organisms are better suited to their environments.

41. Recently the ‘Annual Status of Education Report (ASER), 2023’ was submitted by PRATHAM. Which of the following statements is/are correct about the Report?

(i) The Report focused on the 14-18 years of age group.

(ii) According to the Report, the percentage of youths not enrolled in any form of formal education has gone up for 14 years olds and gone down for 18 years olds as compared to the year 2017.

(iii) For discontinuing education, almost 20% of girls attributed it to family constraints’.

(iv) The Report asserted that the fear that several older students dropped out of school during the COVID-19 pandemic due to loss of livelihood was true.

Select the correct answer using the codes given below.

(A) (i) only

(B) (i) and (ii) only

(D) (ii) and (iv) only

Answer:- C

Explanation

The Annual Status of Education Report (ASER) 2023, submitted by PRATHAM, provides insights into education trends for the 14-18 age group. Below is an analysis of the provided statements:

Focus on the 14-18 age group (Correct): The report examines this age group, highlighting enrollment trends, foundational skills, and daily-life skill applications.
Enrollment trends for 14 and 18-year-olds (Incorrect): While the report notes differences in enrollment rates (with 3.9% of 14-year-olds not enrolled, increasing to 32.6% for 18-year-olds), it does not indicate an “increase” for 14-year-olds compared to 2017. Instead, foundational literacy has declined over time.
Education discontinuation for girls due to family constraints (Correct): The report indicates significant gender-based challenges, with many girls attributing discontinuation to family responsibilities or constraints.
COVID-19 and dropouts (Incorrect): The report does not confirm a large-scale dropout due to pandemic-related livelihood loss but instead focuses on foundational skill deficits and enrollment trends unrelated to such claims.

42. Consider the following statements regarding Bhimbor Deuri, A prominent leader of the Tribal League:

(i) Bhimbor Deuri vehemently opposed the Muslim League’s conspiracy to include Assam in a grouping plan with Bengal.

(ii) Bhimbor Deuri supported a proposal for a separate electorate for the tribal people for strengthening the rights of indigenous communities.

Select the correct statement/ statements using the codes given below.

(A) (i) only

(B) (ii) only

(D) Neither (i) nor (ii)

Answer:- C

Explanation

Bhimbor Deuri, a prominent leader of the Tribal League, strongly opposed the Muslim League’s plan to include Assam with Bengal under a grouping plan during the partition discussions. He also advocated for a separate electorate to ensure the political rights and representation of tribal communities in Assam, which were crucial for strengthening their indigenous identity and rights.

43. Match the following folk dance forms (List-I) with their corresponding communities of Assam (List-II):

List-I

a. Hacha Kekan

b. Hanaghora

c. Bisuyo Jama Dance

d. Baidima

List-II

1. Dimasa

2. Karbi

3. Rabha

4. Deuri

Select the correct answer using the codes given below.

a b c d

2 4 3 1

4 1 3 2

(D) 2 3 4 1

Answer:- A

Explanation

The correct matching of the folk dance forms (List-I) with their corresponding communities of Assam (List-II) is as follows:

Hacha Kekan – Karbi
Hanaghora – Deuri
Bisuyo Jama Dance – Rabha
Baidima – Dimasa

Thus, the correct code is: 2 4 3 1

44. Which of the following pairs is/are incorrectly matched?

(i) Finance Commission of India : Constitutional Body

(ii) Securities and Exchange Board of India : Statutory Body

(iii) NITI Aayog : Constitutional Body

(iv) Reserve Bank of India : Statutory Body

Select the correct answer using the codes given below.

(A) (i) and (iii) only

(B) (ii) and (iv) only

(D) (iv) only

Answer:- C

Explanation

Finance Commission of India: It is a Constitutional Body, established under Article 280 of the Constitution of India. This is correctly matched.
Securities and Exchange Board of India (SEBI): It is a Statutory Body, established by the SEBI Act of 1992. This is correctly matched.
NITI Aayog: It is a Non-Constitutional, Non-Statutory Body, formed by a resolution of the Union Cabinet in 2015. It replaced the Planning Commission. This is incorrectly matched as it is not a Constitutional Body.
Reserve Bank of India (RBI): It is a Statutory Body, established under the Reserve Bank of India Act, 1934. This is correctly matched.

45. Which of the following groups of places is/are located on the north bank of the Brahmaputra?

(i) Bijni, Jogighopa, Raha, Titabar

(ii) Hajo, Bihpuria Sarthebari, Moran,

(iii) Pathsala, Bongaigaon, Dhekiajuli, Gohpur

(iv) Sualkuchi, Barpeta, Kharupetia, Narayanpur

Select the correct answer using the codes given below.

(A) (i) and (ii) only

(B) (iii) and (iv) only

(D) (iii) only

Answer:- B

Explanation

Group (iii): Pathsala, Bongaigaon, Dhekiajuli, and Gohpur are located on the north bank of the Brahmaputra. These places lie across regions like Barpeta, Sonitpur, and Biswanath districts, which are north of the river.
Group (iv): Sualkuchi, Barpeta, Kharupetia, and Narayanpur are also on the north bank. Sualkuchi and Barpeta are in Kamrup and Barpeta districts respectively, while Kharupetia and Narayanpur lie in Darrang and Lakhimpur districts.
Group (i): Bijni and Jogighopa are on the north bank, but Raha and Titabar are on the south bank, making this group incorrect.
Group (ii): While Hajo is near the Brahmaputra’s north bank, Sarthebari and Moran are on the south bank, making this group also incorrect.

46. Match the following personalities (List-I) with the popular sobriquets by which they are known (List-II):

List-I

a. Anandiram Das

b. Parbati Prasad Baruah

c. Bishnuram Medhi

d. Hemchandra Baruah

List-II

1. Geetikavi

2. Lauha Manab

3. Bonkonwar

4. Tyagbir

Select the correct answer using the codes given below.

a b c d

2 1 4 3

3 4 1 2

(D) 4 1 2 3

Answer:- D

Explanation

a. Anandiram Das – Tyagbir (4): Anandiram Das was a social reformer and freedom fighter from Assam, known for his sacrifices for society, earning him the title “Tyagbir.”
b. Parbati Prasad Baruah – Geetikavi (1): Parbati Prasad Baruah was a poet and lyricist known for his lyrical compositions, thus called “Geetikavi.”
c. Bishnuram Medhi – Lauha Manab (2): Bishnuram Medhi, a former Chief Minister of Assam, was known for his strong and resolute character, leading to the sobriquet “Lauha Manab” (Iron Man).
d. Hemchandra Baruah – Bonkonwar (3): Hemchandra Baruah was a writer and social reformer, often referred to as “Bonkonwar” for his pioneering contributions to Assamese literature.

47. Which of the following is/are correct about ‘eRupee?

(i) It refers to Rupee circulation in Europe.

(ii) It refers to exchange rate of Rupee.

(iii) It is the Digital Rupee App of the State Bank of India.

(iv) It is the Central Bank Digital Currency.

Select the correct answer using the codes given below.

(A)(i) and (ii) only

(B)(i) and (iv) only

(C)(iii) only

(D) (iv) only

Answer:- D

Explanation

The eRupee refers to the Central Bank Digital Currency (CBDC), which is issued by the Reserve Bank of India (RBI) in digital form, aiming to replace physical currency for electronic transactions. The initiative is part of the ongoing digitalization efforts and has been introduced to provide a secure, efficient, and easily accessible alternative to cash.

(i) and (ii) are incorrect as they refer to other concepts unrelated to eRupee.
(iii) is also incorrect because eRupee is not an app of the State Bank of India, but rather a form of digital currency issued by the RBI.

The eRupee, as the CBDC, functions as a legal tender in a digital form and is intended to be used for transactions within the country. It operates under the regulatory oversight of the central bank, ensuring safety and stability in digital monetary systems.

For further details, you can explore government releases on the subject and other reliable financial sources.

48. The proposed India-Middle East- Europe Economic Corridor (IMEC) is expected to have multiple benefits for India. Which of the following is/are in the list of benefits?

(i) It is a new and more efficient way for India to export its goods to Europe.

(ii) It would make India a more attractive destination for foreign investment.

(iii) The construction and maintenance of the Economic Corridor would create millions of new jobs in India.

(iv) The construction of the Corridor would be done under the supervision of the World Trade Organization.

Select the correct answer using the codes given below.

(A) (i) only

(B) (i) and (ii) only

(D) (i), (ii) and (iv) only

Answer:- C

Explanation

The proposed India-Middle East-Europe Economic Corridor (IMEC) is expected to offer multiple benefits for India, including:

A new and more efficient way to export goods to Europe: The corridor is designed to facilitate quicker and more cost-effective trade, reducing transit times for Indian exports to Europe by up to 40% compared to the traditional Suez Canal route.
Increased attractiveness for foreign investment: By improving infrastructure connectivity, the IMEC is expected to boost India’s position as a global investment hub.
Creation of millions of jobs: The construction and maintenance of the infrastructure for this corridor is anticipated to generate significant employment opportunities across the country.

However, it is important to note that the construction of the corridor will not be under the supervision of the World Trade Organization.

Therefore, the correct answer is (C) (i), (ii), and (iii) only.

49. Match the following places (List-I) with the districts where these are located (List-II)

List-I

a. Sitajakhala

b. Silghat

c. Kulsi

d. Semkhor

List-II

1. Dima Hasao

2. Kamrup

3. Nagaon

4. Morigaon

Select the correct answer using the codes given below.

a b c d

(A) 1 2 3 4

(B) 2 4 1 3

(D) 3 1 4 2

Answer:- C

Explanation

The correct match between the places and their respective districts is as follows:

a. Sitajakhala is a historical and religious site located in the Morigaon district of Assam.
b. Silghat is a town located on the southern banks of the Brahmaputra, in Nagaon district in the Indian state of Assam.
c. Kulsi is located in Kamrup district.
d. Semkhor village is an one of the oldest village of Dimasa’s indigenous Tribe living near the Nagaland and Manipur border. It is located in Maibong Taluka of Dima Hasao district in Assam.

Thus, the correct answer is (B) 2 4 1 3.

50. Chief Minister’s Atmanirbhar Asom Abhijan Portal was launched on 23rd September, 2023. To qualify for financial assistance of 5 lakh under the scheme, which of the following criteria are necessary?

(i) The applicant must be a permanent resident of Assam.

(ii) The applicant must not be older than 28 years of age.

(iii) The applicant must have a bank account opened before 31st December, 2023.

(iv) The applicant must have a professional degree in engineering/medical/dental/veterinary/ fishery/agriculture, etc.

Select the correct answer using the codes given below.

(A) (i) and (ii) only

(B) (ii) and (iii) only

(D) (i) and (iv) only

Answer:- C

Explanation

The Chief Minister’s Atmanirbhar Asom Abhijan Portal launched on 23rd September 2023 provides financial assistance for young entrepreneurs in Assam. To qualify for assistance of ₹5 lakh, the following criteria must be met:

The applicant must be a permanent resident of Assam.
The applicant must have a bank account (opened before 31st December 2023).
The applicant must possess a professional degree in fields like engineering, medicine, agriculture, animal husbandry, fishery, etc.

Regarding the age limit, there is no specific reference to an age restriction of 28 years, suggesting that this condition may not be part of the qualifying criteria.

51. Which of the following is/are correct about a Bad Bank?

(i) A bank that is insolvent

(ii) A bank that has become bankrupt

(iii) A bank whose NPAs have crossed the tolerable limit

(iv) A bank set up to buy bad loans and other illiquid holdings of another financial institution

Select the correct answer using the codes given below.

(A) (i) and (ii) only

(B) (ii) and (iii) only

(D) (iv) only

Answer:- D

Explanation

A “Bad Bank” is an institution created to buy bad loans or non-performing assets (NPAs) from other financial institutions to help them clean up their balance sheets. This allows the original bank to offload troubled assets and focus on lending and growth. The correct statement about a Bad Bank is:

(iv) A bank set up to buy bad loans and other illiquid holdings of another financial institution.

Thus, the correct answer is (D) (iv) only.

Statements (i), (ii), and (iii) are not accurate definitions of a Bad Bank. While a Bad Bank may deal with non-performing loans (NPLs), it is not inherently insolvent or bankrupt itself. Instead, its purpose is to acquire these bad loans from other banks to improve their financial health.

52. Pick up the wrong statement/ statements regarding an Interim Budget in India.

(i) It provides continuity in governance during the transition period between two governments.

(ii) The government cannot propose major taxes or policy reforms in the Budget.

(iii) The Economic Survey’ is presented one day before the presentation of the Interim Budget.

(iv) It is an authorization for incurring specific expenditure necessary until a new government is formed.

Select the correct answer using the codes given below.

(A) (i) only

(B) (i) and (ii) only

(D) (ii) and (iv) only

Answer:- C

Explanation

The incorrect statement(s) regarding an Interim Budget in India are:

(iii) The Economic Survey is presented one day before the presentation of the Interim Budget.

This statement is incorrect because the Economic Survey is typically presented before the Budget, but not necessarily one day before. It can be presented a few days before the actual Budget presentation.

Regarding the other statements:

(i) The Interim Budget does provide continuity in governance during the transition period between two governments. It serves as a temporary measure until the new government forms and presents a full budget.
(ii) The government cannot propose major taxes or policy reforms in the Interim Budget, which is correct as it mainly covers ongoing expenditures.
(iv) It is an authorization for incurring specific expenditure necessary until a new government is formed, which is also accurate as the interim budget is usually focused on non-controversial and essential spending.

Thus, the correct answer is:
(C) (iii) only.

53. INS Imphal was delivered to the Indian Navy on 20th October, 2023. Which of the following statements about INS Imphal is/are not correct?

(i) It is a Visakhapatnam-class stealth guided missile destroyer of the Indian Navy.

(ii) It was constructed by the Mazagon Dock Shipbuilders Ltd.

(iii) It was commissioned into the Indian Navy in December 2023.

(iv) The ship boasts 100% indigenous content.

Select the correct answer using the codes given below.

(A) (i) only

(B) (ii) and (iii) only

(D) (iv) only

Answer:- C

Explanation

The statements about INS Imphal that are not correct are:

(iii) It was commissioned into the Indian Navy in December 2023.
- This is incorrect because INS Imphal was delivered to the Indian Navy on 20th October 2023, but it was not commissioned at that time. Commissioning typically happens later.
(iv) The ship boasts 100% indigenous content.
- This is partially incorrect. While INS Imphal is largely built with indigenous content, 100% indigenous content is a stretch. While many systems and technologies are indigenous, some parts of the ship, such as advanced electronics and sensors, are still imported or developed in collaboration with foreign partners.

Thus, the correct answer is:

(C) (iii) and (iv) only.

54. The ‘HUMP WWII Museum’ was opened in Arunachal Pradesh in 2023. Which of the following statements are correct pertaining to the Museum?

(i) The Museum has been set up in the town of Pasighat.

(ii) The Hump refers to the dangerous aerial route over the ice-covered eastern Himalayan mountains.

(iii) This dangerous route was used to supply British troops battling Japanese forces after they cut off the overland route through Burma (Myanmar).

(iv) The route also earned the moniker ‘Aluminum Trail’ because of the number of crashes.

Select the correct answer using the codes given below.

(A) (i) and (ii) only

(B) (i) and (iv) only

(D) (i), (ii) and (iv) only

Answer:- C

Explanation

The statements that are correct regarding the ‘HUMP WWII Museum’ in Arunachal Pradesh are:

(i) The Museum has been set up in the town of Pasighat.
- Correct. The museum is located in Pasighat, a town in Arunachal Pradesh.
(ii) The Hump refers to the dangerous aerial route over the ice-covered eastern Himalayan mountains.
- Correct. The term “Hump” refers to the challenging and perilous aerial route used during WWII to fly supplies over the eastern Himalayas, also known for its treacherous weather and high-altitude conditions.
(iii) This dangerous route was used to supply British troops battling Japanese forces after they cut off the overland route through Burma (Myanmar).
- Correct. The Hump was primarily used to supply British and Allied forces in China, especially after the Japanese cut off the overland route through Burma.
(iv) The route also earned the moniker ‘Aluminum Trail’ because of the number of crashes.
- Correct. The route was nicknamed the “Aluminum Trail” due to the significant number of aircraft that crashed in the dangerous terrain.

55. Which of the following lists is correct carrying the names of the five- member bench of the Supreme Court that passed the Ayodhya Verdict on 9th November, 2019?

(A) Justice Ranjan Gogoi, Justice Ashok Bhushan, Justice Sharad A. Bobde, Justice D. Y. Chandrachud, Justice S. Abdul Nazeer

(B) Justice Ranjan Gogoi, Justice Ashok Bhushan, Justice Sharad A. Bobde, Justice D. Y. Chandrachud, Justice U. U. Lalit

(D) Justice Ranjan Gogoi, Justice Mohammad Hidayatullah, Justice Sharad A. Bobde, Justice D. Y. Chandrachud, Justice S. Abdul Nazeer

Answer:- A

Explanation

The correct list of the five-member bench of the Supreme Court that passed the Ayodhya Verdict on 9th November 2019 is:

(A) Justice Ranjan Gogoi, Justice Ashok Bhushan, Justice Sharad A. Bobde, Justice D. Y. Chandrachud, Justice S. Abdul Nazeer.

This bench delivered the unanimous verdict in the long-running Ayodhya land dispute case, allocating the disputed land for the construction of a Ram Mandir and directing the allocation of alternative land for the construction of a mosque.

56. Match the following Wildlife Sanctuaries (WLS) of Assam (List-I) with the districts where these are located (List-II):

List-I

a. Bordoibam Bilmukh WLS

b. Pabha WLS

c. Pani Dihing WLS

d. Gibbon WLS

List-II

1. Lakhimpur

2. Dhemaji

3. Sivasagar

4. Jorhat

Select the correct answer using the codes given below.

a b c d

(A) 1 2 3 4

(B) 2 3 4 1

(D) 3 2 1 4

Answer:- A

Explanation

The correct match of the Wildlife Sanctuaries (WLS) of Assam with the districts where these are located is:

(A) 1 2 3 4

a. Bordoibam Bilmukh WLS – 1. Lakhimpur
b. Pabha WLS – 2. Dhemaji
c. Pani Dihing WLS – 3. Sivasagar
d. Gibbon WLS – 4. Jorhat

These sanctuaries are located in the specified districts of Assam, contributing to the rich biodiversity of the region.

57. Consider the following statements regarding the 2024 Grammy Awards:

(i) Tabla maestro Zakir Hussain won 3 Grammys.

(ii) Flutist Rakesh Chaurasia won 2 Grammys.

(iii) Singer Shankar Mahadevan, violinist L. Subramaniam and percussionist Selvaganesh won 1 Grammy each.

(iv) The fusion group ‘Shakti’ won the 2024 Grammy Award for the best global music album for ‘This Moment’.

Select the correct statement/ statements using the codes given below.

(A) (i) and (ii) only

(B) (iv) only

(D) (i), (ii), (iii) and (iv)

Answer:- D

Explanation

The correct answer is (D) (i), (ii), (iii), and (iv). Here’s the breakdown:

Tabla maestro Zakir Hussain won 3 Grammys: Best Global Music Album (This Moment with Shakti), Best Global Music Performance (Pashto), and Best Contemporary Instrumental Album (As We Speak).
Flutist Rakesh Chaurasia won 2 Grammys for his work on Pashto and As We Speak.
Singer Shankar Mahadevan, violinist Ganesh Rajagopalan, and percussionist Selvaganesh Vinayakram were among the Grammy-winning contributors to Shakti’s This Moment, winning 1 Grammy each.
The fusion group Shakti won the Grammy for Best Global Music Album for This Moment.

All statements are correct based on the provided information.

58. Consider the following pairs:

(i) Mahamaya Temple

: Dhubri

(ii) Dhekiakhowa Bornamghar

: Golaghat

(iii) Malini Than

: Dhemaji

(iv) Deopani Temple

: Jorhat

Select the correctly matched pairs using the codes given below.

(A) (i) and (ii) only

(B) (i) and (iii) only

(D) (i), (iii) and (iv) only

Answer:- B

Explanation

Mahamaya Temple: Located in Bogribari, Dhubri district, Assam.
- Correct match.

Dhekiakhowa Bornamghar: Located in Jorhat district, not Golaghat.

- Incorrect match.

Malini Than: Located in Dhemaji district, Assam.

- Correct match.

Deopani Temple: Located in Golaghat district, near Kaziranga National Park, not Jorhat.

- Incorrect match.

59. Match the following personalities (List-I) with the awards/recognitions they had been conferred with (List-II):

List-I

a. Hemoprova Chutia

b. Jintimoni Nakul Kalita

c. Uma Chetry

d. Pratima Nandi Narzary

List-II

1. Awarded Padma Shri in 2023

2. First female participant from Assam in T20 Asia Cup hosted in Hong Kong

3. Indian cricket player from Assam in the Asian Games held in Hangzhou, China

4. Winner of Sahitya Akademi Bal Puraskar, 2023

Select the correct answer using the codes given below.

a b c d

(A) 1 2 3 4

(B) 4 3 2 1

(D) 3 2 4 1

Answer:- B

Explanation

The correct answer is (B) 4 3 2 1. Here’s the explanation of the match:

Hemoprova Chutia: Winner of Sahitya Akademi Bal Puraskar, 2023.
- Matched with (4).

Jintimoni Nakul Kalita: Represented India in the Asian Games held in Hangzhou, China as a cricket player.

- Matched with (3).

Uma Chetry: The first female participant from Assam in T20 Asia Cup hosted in Hong Kong.

- Matched with (2).

Pratima Nandi Narzary: Awarded Padma Shri in 2023 for her contributions.

- Matched with (1).

60. India breached the 100-medal mark for the first time in the Asian Games at Hangzhou in China in 2023. Select the correct pair of gold and silver medals from the options given below.

(A) Gold-24, Silver-34

(B) Gold-28, Silver-38

(D) Gold-22, Silver-38

Answer:- B

Explanation

India achieved a historic milestone by breaching the 100-medal mark at the 2023 Asian Games in Hangzhou, China. The country secured:

Gold: 28, Silver: 38.

Thus, the correct answer is (B) Gold-28, Silver-38.

61. The operation to evacuate the Indian citizens from Israel during the 2023 Israel-Hamas war is named as

(A) Operation Rahat

(B) Operation Ajay

(D) Operation Kaveri

Answer:- B

Explanation

The operation to evacuate Indian citizens from Israel during the 2023 Israel-Hamas war was named Operation Ajay.The Government of India launched Operation Ajay to bring back Indian nationals amid the escalating conflict in the region. Special flights were organized under this operation to ensure the safe evacuation of citizens.

62. Match the following historical/ tourist places of Assam (List-I) with the corresponding districts where these are located (List-II):

List-I

a. Ghuguha Dol

b. Patharughat

c. Sankhadevi Archaeological Site

d. Baduli Khurung

List-II

1. Darrang

2. Dhemaji

3. Nagaon

4. Hojai

Select the correct answer using the codes given below.

a b c d

(A) 2 4 3 1

(B) 2 1 4 3

(D) 2 3 4 1

Answer:- B

Explanation

The correct match of historical/tourist places of Assam with their corresponding districts is:

(B)
a. Ghuguha Dol – Dhemaji (2)
b. Patharughat – Darrang (1)
c. Sankhadevi Archaeological Site – Hojai (4)
d. Baduli Khurung – Nagaon (3)

Ghuguha Dol: Located in Dhemaji district, this historical site is significant for its association with ancient Ahom history.
Patharughat: Found in Darrang district, it is the site of a farmer’s uprising against British rule in 1894.
Sankhadevi Archaeological Site: Situated in Hojai district, it has rich archaeological relevance.
Baduli Khurung: Located in Nagaon district, it is a popular tourist spot.

63. Read the following statements regarding ‘blockchain’. Which of the following statements is/are correct?

(i) It is a method of recording information that makes it impossible or difficult for the system to be changed, hacked, or manipulated.

(ii) This method can ensure secure transactions, lower compliance expenses and accurate data transfer processing.

(iii) This method is used only in financial service industry.

(iv) Fuji Nakamori is the name used by the presumed pseudonymous person or persons who developed Bitcoin.

Select the correct answer using the codes given below.

(A) (i) only

(B) (i) and (ii) only

(D) (i), (ii) and (iv) only

Answer:- B

Explanation

Statement (i): Correct
Blockchain is a method of recording information in a decentralized, distributed ledger system, making it secure and resistant to unauthorized changes, hacking, or manipulation.
Statement (ii): Correct
Blockchain technology facilitates secure transactions, reduces compliance costs, and ensures accurate and transparent data processing in various industries, including finance, healthcare, and supply chain management.
Statement (iii): Incorrect
Blockchain is not limited to the financial services industry. It has applications across multiple sectors such as healthcare, education, supply chain, real estate, and government services.
Statement (iv): Incorrect
The pseudonym for the creator of Bitcoin is Satoshi Nakamoto, not Fuji Nakamori.

64. Who among the following was awarded the Siu-Ka-Pha Award, 2023?

(A) Dhirendra Nath Bezbaruah

(B) Pranab Jyoti Deka

(D) Ranjan Gogoi

Answer:- A

Explanation

The Siu-Ka-Pha Award 2023 was conferred upon Dhirendranath Bezbaruah, a veteran journalist and the founding editor of The Sentinel, for his significant contributions to English journalism and Assamese literature.

65. Who among the following are Arjuna Award winners from Assam?

(1) Bhogeswar Baruah

(ii) Monalisa Baruah Mehta

(iii) Amlan Borgohain

(iv) Jayanta Talukdar

Select the correct answer using the codes given below.

(A) (i) and (ii) only

(B) (i), (ii) and (iii) only

(D) (i) and (iii) only

Answer:- C

Explanation

Bhogeswar Baruah: The first Arjuna Awardee from Assam (1966) for athletics.
Monalisa Baruah Mehta: Arjuna Awardee in table tennis, recognized for her contributions to Indian sports.
Jayanta Talukdar: Arjuna Awardee (2006) in archery.

Amlan Borgohain has not yet received the Arjuna Award as of now, though he is a prominent athlete from Assam.

66. The Mukhyamantri Mahila Udyamita Abhiyan (MMUA) was announced in January 2024. What are the eligibility criteria for the scheme?

(i) All women self-help groups of Assam are eligible for the scheme.

(ii) If the applicants have girl children, they must be enrolled in school.

(iii) The trees the applicants planted under the Amrit Briksha Andolan should be surviving.

(iv) General and OBC categories applicants cannot have more than three children.

Select the correct answer using the codes given below.

(A) (i), (ii) and (iii) only

(B) (i), (ii) and (iv) only

(D) (ii), (iii) and (iv) only

Answer:- A

Explanation

(i) Women self-help groups (SHGs) of Assam are eligible for the Mukhyamantri Mahila Udyamita Abhiyan (MMUA).
(ii) The scheme requires that women applicants who have girl children must ensure that the children are enrolled in school.
(iii) Applicants must have ensured the survival of the trees they planted under the Amrit Briksha Andolan.
(iv) While general and OBC category applicants must not have more than two children (not three). Hence, statement (iv) is incorrect, as the scheme’s eligibility regarding the number of children only applies to a limit of two, not three.

67. If an individual is awarded with a gold medal called Lachit Borphukan Medal as the best Army Cadet, where has he/she passed out from?

(A) Indian Military Academy (IMA)

(B) National Defence Academy (NDA)

(D) Army Cadet College (ACC)

Answer:- B

Explanation

The Lachit Borphukan gold medal is awarded to the best graduating cadet from the National Defence Academy (NDA). The award has been given annually since 1999.
The medal is named after Lachit Borphukan, a commander in the Ahom Kingdom who defeated the Mughal Army in the 1671 Battle of Saraighat. He is considered a hero in Assam for stopping the Mughals from conquering the region

68. Arrange the following Speakers of the Assam Legislative Assembly in the chronological order:

(i) Pulakesh Baruah

(ii) Kuladhar Chaliha

(iii) Debeswar Sarma

(iv) Mahendra Mohan Choudhury

Select the correct answer using the codes given below.

(A) (iii)-(iv)-(ii)-(i)

(B) (iv)-(iii)-(ii)-(i)

(D) (iv)-(iii)-(i)-(ii)

Answer:- C

Explanation

The correct chronological order of the Speakers of the Assam Legislative Assembly is:

Debeswar Sarma (served from 1946 to 1952)
Mahendra Mohan Choudhury (served from 1952 to 1957)
Kuladhar Chaliha (served from 1957 to 1962)
Pulakesh Baruah (served from 1962 to 1967)

Thus, the correct answer is (C) (iii)-(ii)-(iv)-(i).

69. Arrange, in descending order, the population in Assam by languages as per the Census of India, 2011.

(A) Assamese, Mising, Bengali, Bodo

(B) Assamese, Bengali, Bodo, Mising

(D) Assamese, Bengali, Mising, Bodo

Answer:- B

Explanation

As per the Census of India, 2011, the descending order of population by languages in Assam is:

Assamese
Bengali
Bodo
Mising

So, the correct answer is (B) Assamese, Bengali, Bodo, Mising.

70. Which of the following is/are not the work/works of Madhavdev?

(i)Nam Ghosa

(ii) Bhakti Ratnavali

(iii) Bhumi Letowa

(iv) Balichalan

Select the correct answer using the codes given below.

(A)(i) only

(B) (ii) and (iv) only

(C)(iv) only

(D) (iii) and (iv) only

Answer:- C

Explanation

The works of Madhavdev, an important figure in the Bhakti movement and a prominent Assamese saint-scholar, include:

Nam Ghosa – A text written by Madhavdev that extols the power of chanting the name of God (Nama) and is a significant part of Assamese literature.
Bhakti Ratnavali – A work attributed to Madhavdev that discusses the principles of Bhakti (devotion), the path to spiritual realization.
Bhumi Letowa is an Assamese drama written by Madhavdev. Madhavdev was a writer who also created other dramas, including Arjun Bhanjan, Chordhara, Pimpara Guchowa, and Bhojan Bihar.
Balichalan – Sankardeva wrote Balichalan in Assamese. Sankardeva was a famous poet and preacher of Vaisnavism in Assam during the 15th and 16th centuries. He wrote in multiple languages, including Sanskrit, old Assamese, and Brazabali

Therefore, the correct answer is (C) (iv) only.

71. Match the following places of Assam (List-I) with the districts where these are located (List-II):

List-I

a. Titabar

b. Doulasal

c. Nazira

d. Sarthebari

List-II

1. Sivasagar

2. Barpeta

3. Jorhat

4. Nalbari

Select the correct answer using the codes given below.

a b c d

(A) 2 3 1 4

(B) 3 4 2 1

(D) 3 4 1 2

Answer:- D

Explanation

The correct match between the places of Assam and the districts where they are located is as follows:

Titabar: Jorhat (District)
Doulasal: Nalbari (District)
Nazira: Sivasagar (District)
Sarthebari: Barpeta (District)

Therefore, the correct answer is:

(D) 3 4 1 2.

72. Which of the following names of the Agroclimatic Zones of Assam is/are not correct?

(i) Upper Brahmaputra Valley

(ii) North Central Brahmaputra Valley

(iii) Barail Zone

(iv) Hill Zone

Select the correct answer using the codes given below.

(A) (i) only

(B) (iii) and (iv) only

(D) (ii) and (iii) only

Answer:- D

Explanation

The Agroclimatic Zones of Assam include the following:

Upper Brahmaputra Valley – This is correct.
North Central Brahmaputra Valley – This is incorrect. The correct term is the Central Brahmaputra Valley.
Barail Zone – This is incorrect. The correct term is the Barail Hills Zone.
Hill Zone – This is correct.

Thus, “North Central Brahmaputra Valley” and “Barail Zone” are not the correct names of agroclimatic zones of Assam.

73. Which of the following statements are correct about the Women’s Reservation Bill, 2023?

(i) The Women’s Reservation Bill, 2023 proposes 33% reservation for women in the Lok Sabha and the Assemblies of States and National Capital Territory of Delhi.

(ii) Similar reservation will also be provided within the seats reserved for SC and ST.

(iii) The Bill proposes that the reservation will continue for 25 years.

(iv) The Bill which reserves 33% of seats for women in the Lok Sabha and State Assemblies includes the quota for women from the OBCs.

Select the correct answer using the codes given below,

(A) (i) and (ii) only

(B) (i) and (iii) only

(D) (i), (ii), (iii) and (iv)

Answer:- D

Explanation

The Women’s Reservation Bill, 2023 includes the following provisions:

33% Reservation for Women: The Bill proposes a 33% reservation for women in the Lok Sabha and the State Assemblies, including the Assemblies of National Capital Territory (NCT) Delhi. This is as mentioned in statement (i).
Reservation within SC/ST Seats: The Bill ensures that similar reservation is also provided for women within the seats already reserved for Scheduled Castes (SC) and Scheduled Tribes (ST). This corresponds to statement (ii).
Duration of Reservation: The Bill specifies that the reservation for women will continue for 25 years. This aligns with statement (iii).
OBC Women Quota: The Bill includes the quota for women from Other Backward Classes (OBCs), as stated in statement (iv).

Thus, all the statements (i), (ii), (iii), and (iv) are correct regarding the provisions of the Women’s Reservation Bill, 2023.

74. Match the following schemes (List-1) with the correct objectives (List-II):

List-1

a. Beti Bachao, Beti Padhao

b. Baalika Samriddhi Yojana

c. CBSE Udaan Scheme

d. Poshan Abhiyan

List-II

1. It gives importance to the nutritional level of adolescent girls, pregnant women, lactating mothers and children of 0-6 years of age.

2. It offers free course materials/online re- sources such as video study materials, class materials for girl students in XI and XII standards.

3. To provide fiscal support to young girls and their mothers who belong to BPL category.

4. Removing or preventing gender bias selective abortions for the girl child.

Select the correct answer using the codes given below.

a b c d

(A) 4 3 2 1

(B) 1 2 4 3

(D) 3 4 1 2

Answer:- A

Explanation

Here’s the matching:

a. Beti Bachao, Beti Padhao: (4) – Removing or preventing gender-biased selective abortions for the girl child. The scheme focuses on empowering and saving the girl child.
b. Baalika Samriddhi Yojana: (3) – To provide fiscal support to young girls and their mothers who belong to the Below Poverty Line (BPL) category. This scheme ensures economic support for the welfare of girls from poor families.
c. CBSE Udaan Scheme: (2) – It offers free course materials/online resources such as video study materials, class materials for girl students in XI and XII standards. The scheme is meant to enhance the education of girls in higher secondary education.
d. Poshan Abhiyan: (1) – It gives importance to the nutritional level of adolescent girls, pregnant women, lactating mothers, and children of 0-6 years of age. This scheme focuses on reducing malnutrition among women and children.

This aligns with the key objectives of each of the schemes listed.

75. Match the following Particularly Vulnerable Tribal Groups (PVTG8) (List-1) with the States/Union Territories they belong to (List-II):

List-I

a. Maram

b. Jarawa

c. Birhor

d. Reang

List-II

1. Andaman and Nicobar Islands

2. Tripura

3. Manipur

4. Odisha

Select the correct answer using the codes given below.

a b c d

(A) 1 2 3 4

(B) 3 1 4 2

(D) 3 4 1 2

Answer:- B

Explanation

The correct matching of Particularly Vulnerable Tribal Groups (PVTGs) with their respective States/Union Territories is as follows:

Maram: Manipur
Jarawa: Andaman and Nicobar Islands
Birhor: Odisha
Reang: Tripura

Thus, the correct answer is (B) 3 1 4 2.

76. Which of the following statements are correct about the Scheduled Castes in Assam as per the 2011 Census?

(i) Scheduled Caste population constitutes about 7-15% of the total population of Assam.

(ii) 16 sub-castes are recognized as SCs in Assam, such as Basfor, Bhuimali, Bania, Dhupi, Dholi, Hira, Kaibartta, etc.

(iii) Nagaon district has the highest percentage of SC population followed by Cachar and Kamrup.

(iv) The literacy rate of SCs in Assam is 66.76% with SC females constituting 55-52% and SC males constituting 44-48%.

Select the correct answer using the codes given below.

(A) (i) and (ii) only

(B) (i), (ii) and (iii) only

(D) (i), (ii), (iii) and (iv)

Answer:- B

Explanation

Based on the available data, the correct evaluation of the statements about Scheduled Castes (SCs) in Assam as per the 2011 Census is as follows:

(i) Correct: The Scheduled Caste population in Assam is about 7-15% of the total population. According to Census 2011, the percentage is around 7.4%.
(ii) Correct: Assam recognizes 16 sub-castes under the SC category, including groups like Basfor, Bhuimali, Bania, Dhupi, Dholi, Hira, and Kaibartta.
(iii) Correct: Nagaon district indeed has the highest percentage of SC population in Assam, followed by districts like Cachar and Kamrup.
(iv) Incorrect: The literacy rate for Scheduled Castes in Assam, according to Census 2011, is around 59.45%. The statement regarding the literacy rate and the gender distribution of SCs (66.76% literacy) is inaccurate.

Therefore, the correct answer is (B) (i), (ii) and (iii) only.

77. Match the following demographic terms (List-I) with their meanings (definitions) (List-II):

List-I

a. Birth Rate

b. Crude birth- rate

c. Cohort fertility

d. Birth deficit

List-II

1. Number of live births per woman who were born in a particular year

2. Number of live births per one thousand inhabitants in a year

3. Determined not only by the fertility of a given population but also by structure its age

4. When the number of live births is lower than the number of deaths within a defined period of time

Select the correct answer using the codes given below.

a b c d

(A) 2 3 1 4

(B) 2 3 4 1

(D) 4 2 3 1

Answer:- A

Explanation

The correct matching of demographic terms with their meanings is as follows:

(a) Birth Rate: 2. Number of live births per one thousand inhabitants in a year
This is a standard measure of fertility in a population, showing how many live births occur per 1,000 people in a given year.
(b) Crude birth rate: 3. Determined not only by the fertility of a given population but also by its age structure
The crude birth rate considers the total number of births in relation to the total population but is influenced by the population’s age distribution.
(c) Cohort fertility: 1. Number of live births per woman who were born in a particular year
This measure relates to the fertility rate within a specific cohort of women, often focusing on women born in a certain year.
(d) Birth deficit: 4. When the number of live births is lower than the number of deaths within a defined period of time
This term describes a situation where a population experiences more deaths than births, resulting in a population decline.

So, the correct answer is (C) 2 3 1 4.

78. Match the following personalities (List-l) with the awards conferred on them (List-II):

List-I

a. Pranab Jyoti Deka

b. Arup Kumar Dutta

c. Dr. Joyanti Chutia

d. Dr. Tiyathi Zameer

List-II

1. Sahitya Akademi Award

2. Kalicharan Brahma Award

3. Shri Madhavdev Award

4. Sati Sadhani Award

Select the correct answer using the codes given below.

a b c d

(A) 2 3 4 1

(B) 3 1 4 2

(D) 3 2 1 4

Answer:- B

Explanation

The correct matching of personalities with the awards conferred on them is as follows:

(a) Pranab Jyoti Deka: (3) Shri Madhavdev Award
Pranab Jyoti Deka, a notable literary figure from Assam, has been conferred the Shri Madhavdev Award for his contribution to Assamese literature.
(b) Arup Kumar Dutta: (1) Sahitya Akademi Award
Arup Kumar Dutta, an acclaimed writer and journalist from Assam, received the prestigious Sahitya Akademi Award for his contributions to literature.
(c) Dr. Joyanti Chutia: (4) Sati Sadhani Award
Dr. Joyanti Chutia, recognized for her contributions to society and literature, was honored with the Sati Sadhani Award.
(d) Dr. Tiyathi Zameer: (2) Kalicharan Brahma Award
Dr. Tiyathi Zameer, known for her work in the field of education and social service, was awarded the Kalicharan Brahma Award.

Thus, the correct answer is (A) 2 3 4 1.

79. The Ramchandi Temple, which was built during the 12th century, is situated on the bank of which of the following rivers of Assam?

(A) Gadadhar

(B) Kushiyara

(D) Mahur

Answer:- B

Explanation

The Ramchandi Temple, built during the 12th century, is situated on the bank of the Kushiyara River in Assam. This historic temple is located in the Karimganj district of the state, known for its religious and cultural significance. The temple stands as a testament to the region’s medieval architecture and the legacy of the 12th century.

80. Consider the following statements about Sardar Vallabhbhai Patel:

(i) He got the moniker ‘Sardar’ due to his organizational skills during Bardoli Satyagraha.

(ii) The prison where Mahatma Gandhi and Sardar were cellmates was Naini Prison.

(iii) He was awarded the Bharat Ratna in 1989.

(iv) He was the first Deputy Prime Minister of India.

Select the incorrect statements using the codes given below.

(A) (i) and (ii) only

(B) (ii) and (iii) only

(D) (i) and (iv) only

Answer:- B

Explanation

(i) He got the moniker ‘Sardar’ due to his organizational skills during Bardoli Satyagraha.

This statement is correct. Patel earned the title “Sardar” after his leadership in the Bardoli Satyagraha of 1928, where he successfully led peasants in resisting increased land revenue, and his effective organization earned him the title of “Sardar” (meaning leader or chief).

(ii) The prison where Mahatma Gandhi and Sardar were cell-mates was Naini Prison.

This statement is incorrect. Gandhi and Patel were imprisoned together at Poona (now Pune) and other places, but Naini Jail (in Allahabad) was not the place where they were cellmates. Patel was indeed incarcerated in various jails, but the Naini Prison reference is generally associated with other freedom fighters.

(iii) He was awarded the Bharat Ratna in 1989.

This statement is incorrect. Sardar Patel was posthumously awarded the Bharat Ratna in 1991, not 1989. The award was given to him after his death, recognizing his contributions to India’s unity and leadership.

(iv) He was the first Deputy Prime Minister of India.

This statement is correct. Sardar Vallabhbhai Patel became the first Deputy Prime Minister of India after independence and also held the portfolios of Home Minister and Minister of States, playing a crucial role in the integration of princely states into the Indian Union.

81. Match the following names (List-I) with the Ahom rulers (List-II):

List-I

a. Susenghphaa

b. Suremphaa

c. Sutamla

d. Supangmung

List-II

1. Rajeswar Singha

2. Chakradhwaj Singha

3. Pratap Singha

4. Jayadhwaj Singha

Select the correct answer using the codes given below.

a b c d

(A) 3 2 4 1

(B) 3 1 4 2

(D) 1 2 3 4

Answer:- B

Explanation

Susenghphaa: Known for his contributions to the expansion of the Ahom kingdom, he is associated with Pratap Singha (Option 3).
Suremphaa: This ruler is associated with Rajeswar Singha (Option 1), who reigned in the 18th century.
Sutamla: This is another Ahom ruler associated with Jayadhwaj Singha (Option 4).
Supangmung: He is connected with Chakradhwaj Singha (Option 2).

82. Gaurinath Singha entered into an agreement with the East India Company on which of the following terms?

(i) All imports into Assam were to be subjected to a duty of 10%.

(ii) The duty on export was to be 10%.

(iii) Rice and grains were to be exempted from any duty.

(iv) Two custom houses were to be established at Kandahar and Hadira.

Select the correct answer using the codes given below.

(A) (i) and (ii) only

(B) (i), (ii) and (iii) only

(D) (i), (ii), (iii) and (iv)

Answer:- D

Explanation

The agreement made by Gaurinath Singha, the ruler of Assam, with the East India Company included the following terms:

(i) All imports into Assam were to be subjected to a duty of 10%.
(ii) The duty on exports was to be 10%.
(iii) Rice and grains were to be exempted from any duty.
(iv) Two custom houses were to be established at Kandahar and Hadira.

These terms were part of an effort to regulate trade between Assam and the British, as well as to manage the flow of goods, especially rice, with a special focus on not taxing essential commodities like grains.

83. Match the following authors (List-I) with the books written by them (List-II):

List-I

a. Gunabhiram Baruah

b. Harakanta Sarma Baruah

c. Anandaram Dhekial Phukan

d. Hemchandra Baruah

List-II

1. Asamiya Byakaran

2. Asamiya Lorar Mitra

3. Ram Navami

4. Sadar Aminar Atmajibani

Select the correct answer using the codes given below.

a b c d

(A) 4 2 3 1

(B) 3 1 2 4

(D) 4 2 1 3

Answer:- A

Explanation

Here is the correct match between the authors and their books:

a. Gunabhiram Baruah – 4. Sadar Aminar Atmajibani
b. Harakanta Sarma Baruah – 2. Asamiya Lorar Mitra
c. Anandaram Dhekial Phukan – 3. Ram Navami
d. Hemchandra Baruah – 1. Asamiya Byakaran

84. Match the following associations (List-I) with their respective founders (List-II):

List-I

a. Indian League

b. Indian Association

c. Assam Association

d. Jorhat Sarbajanik Sabha

List-II

1. Ananda Mohan Bose

2. Jagannath Baruah

3. Sisir Kumar Ghosh

4. Manik Chandra Baruah

Select the correct answer using the codes given below.

a b c d

(A) 1 3 2 4

(B) 3 1 4 2

(D) 3 4 1 2

Answer:- A

Explanation

Indian League was founded by Ananda Mohan Bose in 1875.
Indian Association was founded by Sisir Kumar Ghosh in 1876.
Assam Association was founded by Jagannath Baruah in 1903.
Jorhat Sarbajanik Sabha was founded by Manik Chandra Baruah in 1906.

This order aligns with the historical facts of these organizations and their founders.

85. The Global Drought Snapshot, released in December 2023 at the beginning of the 28th Conference of the Parties (COP-28) to the UN Framework Convention on Climate Change (UNFCCC) in Dubai, exposes the devastating consequences of droughts on lives, economies, and various sectors. Based on the data reported by 101 parties to the UNCCD, which of the following statements is/are correct?

(i) The report reveals that a staggering 1-84 billion people experienced the effects of drought. Among them 4-7% faced severe or extreme drought conditions.

(ii) Notably South Africa faced the highest number of declarations.

(iii) Drought severity prompted emergency declarations in 23 countries.

(iv) The US, Canada, India and Sri Lanka are the countries that never declared drought emergencies.

Select the correct answer using the codes given below.

(A) (i) only

(B) (ii) and (iv) only

(D) (i), (ii), (iii) and (iv)

Answer:- C

Explanation

Based on the Global Drought Snapshot released in December 2023, the following statements are correct:

(i) Correct: The report indicates that approximately 1.84 billion people were affected by drought, with about 4.7% facing severe or extreme drought conditions.

(ii) Incorrect: The report does not highlight South Africa as facing the highest number of drought emergency declarations.

(iii) Correct: The report mentions that drought severity led to emergency declarations in 23 countries.

(iv) Incorrect: The report does not specify that the US, Canada, India, and Sri Lanka never declared drought emergencies.

Therefore, the correct answer is:

(C) (i) and (iii) only.

86. Which of the following sessions of Asom Sahitya Sabha was/were presided over by Sitanath Brahma Choudhury?

(i) Tinsukia

(ii) Diphu

(iii) Sivasagar

(iv) Tezpur

Select the correct answer using the codes given below.

(A) (i) only

(B) (i) and (ii) only

(D) (iii) and (iv) only

Answer:- B

Explanation

Sitanath Brahma Choudhury presided over the Asom Sahitya Sabha sessions held in Tinsukia and Diphu. Therefore, the correct answer to the question is:

(B) (i) and (ii) only

87. Consider the following statements regarding Pradhan Mantri Matsya Sampada Yojana (PMMSY):

(i) It is the flagship scheme for focused and sustainable development of fisheries in India.

(ii) It is implemented in all States/ Union Territories as part of Atmanirbhar Bharat package for a period of five years from Financial Year 2020-21 to Financial Year 2024-25.

(iii) The Central Government bears the project cost and States/ Union Territories share the cost of sub-components of the scheme.

(iv) Ornamental fish cultivation is kept out of focus under PMMSY.

Select the correct statement/ statements using the codes given below.

(A) (i) only

(B) (ii) and (iii) only

(D) (ii) only

Answer:- A

Explanation

The Pradhan Mantri Matsya Sampada Yojana (PMMSY) aims at the sustainable development of the fisheries sector in India.

(i) True – The PMMSY is indeed the flagship scheme for focused and sustainable development of the fisheries sector in India, aiming to enhance fish production and improve infrastructure.

(ii) False – It was launched as part of the Atmanirbhar Bharat package for the period from FY 2020-21 to FY 2024-25 and is implemented across all states and Union Territories.

(iii) False – The central government bears the majority of the project cost, but the states and Union Territories are not required to share the cost of the sub-components. The central government supports the entire cost structure.

(iv) False – Ornamental fish cultivation is not excluded from the PMMSY. In fact, it is a part of the overall focus of the scheme for expanding the fisheries industry.

88. Consider the following statements regarding Jal Jeevan Mission (JJM):

(i) The programme includes recharge and reuse through greywater management, water conservation and rainwater harvesting.

(ii) It is a demand-driven scheme with strong emphasis on Jan Bhagidari (community engagement) as a crucial pillar of the project.

(iii) The United Nations Office for Project Services (UNOPS) is collaborating with the Denmark Government to support the mission in Uttar Pradesh.

(iv) An average of 29 million people will be employed annually during the mission’s construction phase.

Select the correct statement/ statements using the codes given below.

(A) (i) only

(B) (i) and (ii) only

(D) (i), (ii), (iii) and (iv)

Answer:- D

Explanation

Let’s analyze the statements regarding the Jal Jeevan Mission (JJM):

(i) True – The JJM program includes measures like greywater management, water conservation, and rainwater harvesting as part of its strategy to provide sustainable water sources and improve water quality.

(ii) True – The scheme is indeed demand-driven, with a strong emphasis on community participation (Jan Bhagidari). The involvement of local communities is a crucial pillar of the mission, ensuring the sustainable management of water resources.

(iii) True – The United Nations Office for Project Services (UNOPS) is collaborating with the Denmark government to support the mission in Uttar Pradesh, particularly in technical assistance and project implementation.

(iv) True – An average of 29 million people will be employed annually during the mission’s construction phase.

89. Consider the following statements:

(i) MV Ganga Vilas is the world’s longest river cruise covering over 51 days across 2 countries, 5 States and 27 river systems.

(ii) Prime Minister Narendra Modi flagged off the cruise from Varanasi on 13th January, 2023.

(iii) The international cruise is being offered by Antara Luxury River Cruises who is operating since 2009.

(iv) The cruise culminated its journey on 28th February in Sadiya.

Select the incorrect statement/ statements using the codes given below.

(A) (ii) only

(B) (iv) only

(D) (ii) and (iii) only

Answer:- B

Explanation

Let’s evaluate the statements about MV Ganga Vilas:

(i) True – MV Ganga Vilas is indeed the world’s longest river cruise, covering over 51 days, 2 countries, 5 states, and 27 river systems. This has been widely reported, including by sources like the Ministry of Tourism.

(ii) True – Prime Minister Narendra Modi did flag off the cruise on 13th January 2023 from Varanasi, marking a significant milestone in promoting river cruise tourism in India.

(iii) True – Antara Luxury River Cruises is operating the MV Ganga Vilas, and they have been involved in river cruises since 2009. They are a prominent player in luxury river cruise tourism in India.

(iv) False – The cruise did not culminate its journey in Sadiya. Instead, the cruise was planned to end in Dibrugarh, Assam, after traveling through several states. Sadiya was not the final destination.

90. Which of the following dramas/ Ankiya Nats was/were not composed by Sankardev?

(i) Kaliya Daman

(ii) Patni Prasada

(iii) Keli Gopal

(iv) Arjun Bhanjan

Select the correct answer using the codes given below.

(A) (i) and (iii) only

(B) (ii) only

(D) (iv) only

Answer:- C

Explanation

Let’s assess which of the listed dramas or Ankiya Nats were composed by Sankardev:

(i) Kaliya Daman: This was indeed composed by Sankardev. It is one of his well-known Ankiya Nats, which are short plays based on mythological and devotional themes.

(ii) Patni Prasada: This Ankiya Nat was not composed by Sankardev. It was composed by his disciple Madhavdev, who was also a key figure in the Bhakti movement in Assam.

(iii) Keli Gopal: This drama was composed by Sankardev. It depicts the playful and divine activities of Lord Krishna (Gopal) in a style typical of Sankardev’s devotional works.

(iv) Arjun Bhanjan: This Ankiya Nat was not composed by Sankardev. It was written by Madhavdev.

91. India celebrated her 75th Republic Day on 26th January, 2024. Which of the following statements is/are not correct about the celebration of the Republic Day, 2024

(i) The Parade was held on Kartavya Path.

(ii) The theme of the 75th Republic Day was ‘Viksit Bharat’ and ‘Bharat: Loktantra Ki Matruka’.

(iii) The three States which presented tableaux from North- East India were Meghalaya, Manipur and Nagaland.

(iv) ISRO presented the historic lunar landing of Chandrayaan-III at the Parade.

Select the correct answer using the codes given below.

(A) (i) only

(B) (iii) only

(D) (i) and (iii) only

Answer:- B

Explanation

The 75th Republic Day of India, celebrated on January 26, 2024, featured significant highlights, including the theme and participation of states in the parade.

The Parade was held on Kartavya Path.
This statement is correct. The Republic Day parade took place on Kartavya Path, which is the newly renamed ceremonial boulevard in New Delhi, formerly known as Rajpath.
The theme of the 75th Republic Day was ‘Viksit Bharat’ and ‘Bharat: Loktantra Ki Matruka’.
This statement is correct. The theme highlighted India’s focus on development (‘Viksit Bharat’) and its democratic foundation (‘Bharat: Loktantra Ki Matruka’).
The three States which presented tableaux from North-East India were Meghalaya, Manipur, and Nagaland.
This statement is incorrect. The three states from Northeast India that presented tableaux were Meghalaya, Manipur, and Arunachal Pradesh, not Nagaland.
ISRO presented the historic lunar landing of Chandrayaan-III at the Parade.
This statement is correct. ISRO’s successful lunar mission, Chandrayaan-III, was prominently featured in the Republic Day parade.

Thus, the incorrect statement is (iii), making option (B) “B (iii) only” the correct answer.

92. All the Assam Baibhav, Assam Saurav and Assam Gourav awardees are offered certain benefits/facilities. Which of the following is/are not included in the list of benefits?

(i) They will get free medical treatment in government hospitals and stay in paying cabins, wherever available.

(ii) They will be provided free accommodation in State Government Circuit Houses, Guest Houses and Assam Bhawans.

(iii) They will be regular invitees for all the official functions as distinguished guests.

(iv) The Government of Assam will provide them up to 50 lakh for medical expenses towards the treatment of critical diseases.

Select the correct answer using the codes given below.

(A) (ii) and (iii) only

(B) (iii) and (iv) only

(D) (iv) only

Answer:- D

Explanation

The Assam Baibhav, Assam Saurav, and Assam Gourav awardees are granted several benefits and facilities. Let’s analyze each statement:

They will get free medical treatment in government hospitals and stay in paying cabins, wherever available.

This statement is correct. Awardees are indeed provided free medical treatment in government hospitals and stay in paying cabins if available.

They will be provided free accommodation in State Government Circuit Houses, Guest Houses, and Assam Bhawans.

- This statement is correct. Awardees enjoy free accommodation in State Government Circuit Houses, Guest Houses, and Assam Bhawans.

They will be regular invitees for all the official functions as distinguished guests.

- This statement is correct. Awardees are invited as distinguished guests to official functions.

The Government of Assam will provide them up to 50 lakh for medical expenses towards the treatment of critical diseases.

- This statement is incorrect. There is no such provision of providing up to 50 lakh for medical expenses.

Thus, the incorrect statement is (iv), and the correct answer is (D) (iv) only.

93. Consider the following statements:

(i)NISAR is a low Earth orbit observatory being jointly developed by ISRO and NASA.

(ii)NISAR is a low Earth orbit observatory being jointly developed by ISRO and the European Space Agency.

(iii) The objective of NISAR is to co- develop and launch a dual frequency synthetic aperture RADAR on an Earth observa- tion satellite.

(iv) NISAR is planned to be launched in 2024.

Select the correct statements using the codes given below.

(A) (i) and (iii) only

(B) (ii) and (iii) only

(D) (i), (iii) and (iv) only

Answer:- D

Explanation

About NISAR (NASA-ISRO Synthetic Aperture Radar):

NISAR is a low Earth orbit observatory being jointly developed by ISRO and NASA.
- This statement is correct. NISAR is indeed a joint mission between ISRO and NASA, and it is a low Earth orbit (LEO) satellite designed to observe and monitor Earth’s surface.

NISAR is a low Earth orbit observatory being jointly developed by ISRO and the European Space Agency.

- This statement is incorrect. NISAR is being developed by ISRO in collaboration with NASA, not the European Space Agency (ESA).

The objective of NISAR is to co-develop and launch a dual-frequency synthetic aperture radar on an Earth observation satellite.

- This statement is correct. NISAR’s objective is to use a dual-frequency synthetic aperture radar (SAR) to monitor Earth’s surface and measure the effects of environmental changes, including ground deformation, forest cover, and ice sheet dynamics.

NISAR is planned to be launched in 2024.

- This statement is correct. NISAR is scheduled to be launched in 2024.

Thus, the correct answer is (D) (i), (iii), and (iv) only.

94. Consider the following statements:

(i) India’s solar mission Aditya-L1 has been placed in a halo orbit around Sun-Earth Lagrange point 1.

(ii) Lagrange points are positions of equilibrium for a small object under the gravitational pull of two massive orbiting bodies.

(iii) There are 5 Lagrange points for the Sun-Earth system.

(iv) There are 5 Lagrange points for the Earth-Moon system also.

Select the correct statement/ statements using the codes given below.

(A) (i) only

(B) (i) and (ii) only

(D) (i), (ii), (iii) and (iv)

Answer:- D

Explanation

Let’s analyze the statements about India’s solar mission Aditya-L1 and the concept of Lagrange points:

India’s solar mission Aditya-L1 has been placed in a halo orbit around Sun-Earth Lagrange point 1.
- This statement is correct. The Aditya-L1 mission, launched by ISRO, is indeed placed in a halo orbit around the L1 (Lagrange Point 1) of the Sun-Earth system. This orbit allows continuous observation of the Sun without any interference from the Earth’s shadow.

Lagrange points are positions of equilibrium for a small object under the gravitational pull of two massive orbiting bodies.

- This statement is correct. Lagrange points are specific locations in space where the gravitational forces of two large bodies (such as the Sun and Earth) and the centrifugal force of an object balance each other out, allowing a smaller object to remain in a stable position relative to the two large bodies.

There are 5 Lagrange points for the Sun-Earth system.

- This statement is correct. The Sun-Earth system has 5 Lagrange points, labeled L1 to L5. These points are regions where the gravitational forces of the two bodies and the centrifugal force of an object balance in such a way that the object can remain in a stable or semi-stable position.

There are 5 Lagrange points for the Earth-Moon system also.

- This statement is correct. The Earth-Moon system also has 5 Lagrange points (L1 to L5), though the stability and significance of these points are different compared to those in the Sun-Earth system.

Thus, the correct answer is (D) (i), (ii), (iii) and (iv). All the statements are correct.

95. In the Interim Union Budget, 2024, the Finance Minister mentioned four specific groups of the population to focus on. Which of the following is/are not in the list?

(i)Poor

(ii)Women

(iii)Entrepreneur

(iv)Youth

Select the correct answer using the codes given below.

(A) (i) only

(B) (ii) and (iv) only

(D) (iii) and (iv) only

Answer:- C

Explanation

In the Interim Union Budget for 2024, the Finance Minister emphasized focusing on four specific groups: poor, women, youth, and farmers. This was highlighted as part of the vision for a “Viksit Bharat” (Developed India), aiming to prioritize the welfare and aspirations of these groups.

Thus, the group entrepreneurs was not explicitly mentioned in the list, making the statement about entrepreneurs being a priority in the budget incorrect. Therefore, the correct answer is (C) (iii) only.

96. Consider the following statements:

(i) In computer parlance, a cookie is a malicious computer virus.

(ii) In computer parlance, a cookie is a small piece of text sent by a website to the internet browser.

(iii) Internet cookies are used by banking websites only.

(iv) Internet cookies help the websites to remember the client’s visit to the website.

Select the correct statement/ statements using the codes given below.

(A) (i) only

(B) (ii) only

(D) (ii) and (iv) only

Answer:- D

Explanation

Statement (i) is incorrect. A “cookie” in computing is not a malicious computer virus; it is a small piece of data stored in the browser to track website activity.
Statement (ii) is correct. A cookie is indeed a small piece of text sent by websites to the browser, typically to store information such as login credentials or preferences.
Statement (iii) is incorrect. While cookies are used by many websites, they are not limited to banking websites. They are used by a wide range of sites for functions such as remembering user preferences, tracking activity, or managing sessions.
Statement (iv) is correct. Cookies are commonly used to remember a user’s previous visits, which can make navigating websites more convenient by, for example, retaining login sessions or remembering items in a shopping cart.

Hence, the correct answer is (D) (ii) and (iv) only.

97. What is/are the factor/factors that has/have prompted the colonial rulers to initiate jute cultivation in Brahmaputra Valley?

(i) Saturation of land suitable for jute in Bengal

(ii) High demand of jute in the world market

(iii) Abundant labour supply in Brahmaputra Valley

Select the correct answer using the codes given below.

(A) (i) only

(B) (ii) only

(D) (i), (ii) and (iii)

Answer:- D

Explanation

The factors that prompted colonial rulers to initiate jute cultivation in the Brahmaputra Valley are:

(i) Saturation of land suitable for jute in Bengal: As Bengal’s land for jute cultivation became saturated, the British sought new areas for expansion. The Brahmaputra Valley provided suitable land for growing jute, a key cash crop during colonial times.
(ii) High demand of jute in the world market: The global demand for jute, particularly for the production of bags, ropes, and sacks, surged during the colonial period. This created a need to expand jute cultivation beyond Bengal to meet the demand.
(iii) Abundant labour supply in Brahmaputra Valley: The region had an abundant supply of labor, which made it suitable for large-scale agricultural projects like jute cultivation. This factor likely played a role in the colonial decision to promote jute farming in the area.

Therefore, the correct answer is (D) (i), (ii) and (iii).

98. Which of the following characteristics make a braided river different from a meandering river of similar discharge?

(i) Wider and shallower

(ii) Transports high sediment load

(iii) Erodes riverbanks rapidly

(iv) Deeper

Select the correct answer using the codes given below.

(A) (i), (ii) and (iii) only

(B) (i), (ii) and (iv) only

(D) (ii), (ii) and (iv) only

Answer:- A

Explanation

A braided river differs from a meandering river in several key characteristics related to their flow, sediment transport, and physical features. Specifically:

(i) Wider and shallower: Braided rivers have a wider, shallower flow due to the numerous channels that split and rejoin, creating a “braid-like” appearance. This is in contrast to meandering rivers, which have a single, deeper, and more defined channel.
(ii) Transports high sediment load: Braided rivers typically transport large amounts of sediment, which is a major characteristic that differentiates them from meandering rivers. The high sediment load results from their steep gradient and rapid flow, which is conducive to the erosion and transport of sediments.
(iii) Erodes riverbanks rapidly: While this is more typical of meandering rivers, which erode banks in their curves, braided rivers can also experience significant erosion, particularly where the channels shift rapidly, causing changes in river course.
(iv) Deeper: Braided rivers are usually not deeper; they are shallower compared to meandering rivers because of the multiple small channels that make up the braid.

Based on these characteristics, the correct answer is (A) (i), (ii) and (iii) only.

99. In which of the following Satras in Assam, the religious head (Satradhikar) is elected?

(i) Auniati

(ii) Dakhinpat

(iii) Kamalabari

(iv) Barpeta

Select the correct answer using the codes given below.

(A) (i) and (ii) only

(B) (i) and (iii) only

(D) (iv) only

Answer:- A

Explanation

In Assam, the religious head or Satradhikar is elected in several Satras, and this election process is followed by certain Satras like Auniati and Dakhinpat. These Satras follow a specific system where the Satradhikar is elected based on the established norms of the Satra.

Auniati Satra and Dakhinpat Satra have a process where the Satradhikar is elected by the monks and community members within the Satra.
Kamalabari Satra and Barpeta Satra have different traditions for appointing the Satradhikar, which may not always be an election-based process.

Thus, the correct answer is (A) (i) and (ii) only.

100. As per the tripartite Memorandum of Settlement signed between Government of India, Government of Assam with representatives of United Liberation Front of Assam (ULFA) on 29th December, 2023, which of the following will not be set up in Assam?

(i) Indian Institute of Management

(ii) School of Architecture and Planning

(iii) Indian Institute of Science

(iv) Indian Institute of Science Education and Research

Select the correct answer using the codes given below.

(A) (i) only

(B) (ii) and (iv) only

(D) (iii) and (iv) only

Answer:- C

Explanation

As per the tripartite Memorandum of Settlement signed on December 29, 2023, between the Government of India, the Government of Assam, and representatives of the United Liberation Front of Assam (ULFA), the following educational institutions will be set up in Assam:

Indian Institute of Management (IIM)
School of Architecture, Planning, and Design
Indian Institute of Science Education and Research (IISER)

However, the Indian Institute of Science (IISc) will not be established in Assam as part of this agreement.

Therefore, the correct answer is:
(C) (iii) only.

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